Thursday, February 28, 2013

Most abundant RNA of the cell of


1.In a DNA molecule cytosine is 18%. Percentage of adenine would be
(a) 32%
(b) 64%
(c) 36%
(d) 18%
Answer: (a)
2.In AGCT of DNA hydrogen bonds and base pairings occur between
(a) A-U, C-G
(b) A-C, G-T
(c) A-G,C-T
(d) A-T,C-G
Answer: (d)
3.In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of
(a) Auxin and no cytokinin
(b) Higher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin
(c) Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin
(d) Both auxin and cytokinin in equal proportions.
Answer: (b)
4.In DNA, adenine pairs with
(a) Guanine
(b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil
Answer: (b)
5.In DNA, guanine lies opposite
(a) Uracil
(b) Cytosine
(c) Adenine
(d) thymine
Answer: (b)
6.In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands are
(a) Coiled around a common axis
(b) coiled around each other
(c) coiled differently
(d) Colied over protein sheath
Answer: (a)
7.In RNA, thymine is replaced by
(a) Adenine
(b) Guanine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil
Answer: (d)
8.In tissue / bacterial culture glassware and nutrients are sterilized through
(a) Water bath at 200° C
(b) Dry air oven at 200° C
(c) Dehumidifire
(d) Autoclave
Answer: (d)
9.In tissue culture, callus can be induced to form shoot or root by altering the ratio of
(a) Auxin to cytokinin
(b) Cytokinin to ethylene
(c)  Auxin to gibberellin
(d) Gibberellin to cytokinin
Answer: (a)
10.Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eucaryotes) is
(a) GUA
(b) GCA
(c) CCA
(d) AUG
Answer: (d)
11.Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is
(a) Tissue culture
(b) Immunisation
(c) Biotechnology
(d) Genetic engineering
Answer: (b)
12.It is now possible to breed plants and animals with desired characters through
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Chromosome engineering
(c) Ikebana technique
(d) Bonsia technique
Answer: (a)
13.Most abundant RNA of the cell of
(a) tRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) mRNA
(d) tRNA
Answer: (b)
14.Nitrogen bases of DNA are
(a) ATUC
(b) UTGC
(c) ATGC
(d) AUGC
Answer: (c)
15.Nonsense codon takes part in
(a) Terminating message of gene controlled protein synthesis
(b) Formation of unspecified amino acids
(c) Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense one
(d) Releasing tRNA from polypeptide chain
Answer: (a)
16.Nucleosides are
(a) Sugar + Phosphoric acid
(b) Purine / Pyrimidine + Sugar + Phosphate
(c) Purine / Pyrimidine + Phosphoric acid
(d) Purine / Pyrimidine + Sugar
Answer: (d)
17.Nucleotides present in one turn of DNA helix
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 9
Answer: (c)
18.Okazaki segments are formed during
(a) Transduction
(b) Transcription
(c) Replication
(d) Translation
Answer: (c)
19.Plants developed in vitro culture from pollen grains are
(a) Androgenic plants
(b) Pollen plants
(c) Male plants
(d) Sterile plants
Answer: (a)
20.Plasmids are vectors for gene cloning because they
(a) Self replicate in bacterial cells
(b) Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
(c) Can be multiplied in culture
(d) Can be multiplied in laboratories using enzymes
Answer: (a)

DNA and RNA are similar in having


1.Distance between two successive nitrogenous bases or base pairs of DNA is
(a) 34 Å
(b) 3.4 Å
(c) 10 Å
(d) 5 Å
Answer: (b)
2.DNA and RNA are similar in having
(a) Similar nucleotides
(b) Similar pyrimidines
(c) Similar purines
(d) Similar sugars
Answer: (c)
3.DNA and RNA show similarity in having
(a) Polymers of nucleotides
(b) Similar pyrimidines
(c) Double strands
(d) Similar sugars
Answer: (a)
4.DNA does not occur in
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Plastids
Answer: (b)
5.DNA duplex shows
(a) Right handed coiling and parallel
(b) Right handed coiling and antiparallel
(c) Left handed coiling and antiparallel
(d) Left handed coiling and parallel
Answer: (b)
6.DNA is composed of repeating units of
(a) Ribonucleosides
(b) Deoxyribonucleosides
(c) Ribonucleotides
(d) Deoxyribonucleotides
Answer: (d)
7.DNA replication in eucaryotes commences
(a) From both ends of a chromosome simultaneously
(b) Several sites along DNA of a chromosome simultaneously
(c) From centromere to either end
(d) From one end of chromosome to the other
Answer: (b)
8.DNA replication is
(a) Conservative and discontinuous
(b) Semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
(c) Semiconservative and discontinuous
(d) Conservative
Answer: (c)
9.DNA resembles RNA as both have
(a) Polymers of nucleotides
(b) Similar sugars
(c) Similar pyrimidine bases
(d) Ability to replicate
Answer: (a)
10.DNA sequence is ATG. What would be the sequence of bases in anticodon of tRNA
(a) ATG
(b) AUG
(c) UAC
(d) TAC
Answer: (b)
11.DNA sequence is TAG. What shall be the sequence in anticodon of tRNA
(a) UAG
(b) ATC
(c) ATG
(d) UAC
Answer: (a)
12.DNA sequence of ATTCGATG is transcribed as
(a) AUUCGAUG
(b) UAAGCUAC
(c) CAUCGAAU
(d) GUAGCUUA
Answer: (b)
13.DNA strand with nitrogen base sequence ATTGCC will have sequence in mRNA
(a) UAACGC
(b) ATCGCC
(c) ATTGCA
(d) AGGACC
Answer: (a)
14.Double chained DNA strand is made radioactive in both its chains. It is allowed to replicate twice in non-radioactive medium. The result would be
(a) All strands have radioactivity
(b) Half the strands have radioactivity
(c) Three strands have radioactivity
(d) Radioactivity is absent in all strands
Answer: (b)
15.Double helical structure of DNA was proposed by
(a) Kornberg
(b) Nirenberg
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Wilkins and Franklin
Answer: (c)
16.Functional unit of gene that specifies synthesis of one polypeptide is
(a) Codon
(b) Cistron
(c) Recon
(d) Muton
Answer: (b)
17.Gene is segment of
(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) RNA or DNA
(d) Both DNA and RNA
Answer: (b)
18.Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of
(a) Melatonin
(b) Testoteron
(c) Human insuline
(d) Thyroxine
Answer: (c)
19.Haploid plant cultures are got from
(a) Leaves
(b) Root tip
(c) Pollen grain
(d) Buds
Answer: (c)
20.Hydrogen bonds present between cytosine and guanosine are
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
Answer: (b)

Distance between two strands of DNA


1.A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA sequence of other chain would be
(a) TCGAAGCT
(b) GCTAAGCT
(c) TAGCATAT
(d) GATCCTAG
Answer: (a)
2.A nucleoside is formed of
(a) Pentose sugar, phosphate and nitrogen base
(b) phosphate and nitrogen base
(c) Pentose sugar and phosphate
(d) Pentose sugar and nitrogen base
Answer: (d)
3.A nucleotide is formed of
(a) Purine, Pyrimidine and phosphate
(b) Purine, Sugar and phosphate
(c) Nitrogen base, Sugar and phosphate
(d) Pyrimidine, Sugar and phosphate
Answer: (c)
4.A riboside is
(a) Base + phosphate
(b) Ribose + phosphate
(c) Ribose + phosphate + base
(d) Ribose + base
Answer: (d)
5.A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 60
(d) 480
Answer: (d)
6.A Strand of DNA has base sequence CATGACTAG. The base sequence on the other strand would be
(a) CAT TAG GAC
(b) GTA CTG ATC
(c) GAT GTC ATC
(d) TAC ACT GCT
Answer: (b)
7.A totipotent cell means
(a) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a system or entire plant
(b) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into an organ
(c) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into complete embryo
(d) Cell which lacks the  capability differentiate into an organ or system
Answer: (a)
8.Adenine is
(a) Purine
(b) Pyrimidine
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Nucleotide
Answer: (a)
9.Amino acid binding site of tRNA is
(a) 5’end
(b) Anticodon loop
(c) DHU loop
(d) -CCA 3’end
Answer: (d)
10.Anticodon occurs in
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) mtRNA
(d) rRNA
Answer: (a)
11.Bacterial plasmid contains
(a) RNA
(b) RNA + protein
(c) DNA
(d) Photosynthetic structures
Answer: (c)
12.Base pairs present in one turn of DNA are
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 9
Answer: (c)
13.Best method to determine paternity is
(a) Protein analysis
(b) Chromosome counting
(c) Gene counting
(d) DNA finger printing
Answer: (d)
14.Callus is
(a) Tissue that forms embryo
(b) An insoluble carbohdrate
(c) Tissue that grows to form embryoid
(d) Unorganised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture
Answer: (d)
15.Chemical Knives/ molecular scissors of DNA are
(a) Restriction endonucleases
(b) Polymerases
(c) Ligases
(d)Transcriptases
Answer: (a)
16.Chemofusion and electrofusion are employed in
(a) Eugenics
(b) Protoplast fusion
(c) Cloning
(d) Mutations
Answer: (b)
17.Choose the correct statement
(a) DNA is hereditary material
(b) RNA is hereditary material
(c) DNA is hereditary material but where it is absent RNA can function as hereditary material
(d) Both DNA and RNA are hereditary materials
Answer: (c)
18.Development of shoot and root in tissue culture is determined by
(a) Cytokinin and auxin ratio
(b) Enzymes
(c) Temperature
(d) Plant nutrients
Answer: (a)
19.
Distance between two base pairs of DNA is
(a) 34 nm
(b) 3.4 nm
(c) 0.68 nm
(d) 0.34 nm
Answer: (d)
20.Distance between two strands of DNA is
(a) 34 Å
(b) 20 Å
(c) 3.4 Å
(d) 340 Å
Answer: (b)

hree dimensional shape of tRNA is


1. Hirudin is obtained from the transgenic plant
(A) Brassica napus
(B) Hibiscus rosasinesis
(C) Raphanus sativus
(D) Vinca rosea
Answer: (A)
2. Bt Cotton is
(A) Cloned plant
(B) Transgenic plant
(C) Hybrid plant
(D) Mutated plant
Answer: (B)
3. Dolly sheep was genetically similar to
(A) The mother from which nucleated fertilized egg was taken
(B) The mother from which nuclear DNA of udder cell was taken
(C) The surrogate mother
(D) Both surrogate mother and nuclear donor mother
Answer: (B)
4. Genome is
(A) Genes on nuclear DNA
(B) Nuclear DNA + mitochondrial DNA
(C) Nuclear DNA + chloroplast DNA
(D) Nuclear DNA + Mitochondrial DNA + Chloroplast DNA
Answer: (D)
5. A technique of using very small metal particles coated with desired gene in the gene transfer is called
(A) Electroporation
(B) Microinjection
(C) Liposome
(D) Biolistics
Answer: (D)
6. The complete set of chromosomal and extrachromosomal genes of an organisms is called
(A) Genome
(B) Gene pool
(C) Gene bank
(D) Gene library
Answer: (A)
7. The study of all the proteins coded by the genome is called
(A) Proteome
(B) Proteomics
(C) Genome
(D) Protein formation
Answer: (B)
8. Sequencing of genomic DNA is included under
(A) Structural genomics
(B) Functional genomics
(C) Proteomics
(D) Transgenesis
Answer: (A)
9. Gene expression, regulation and phenotype production are studied in second phase of genome analysis called
(A) Structural genomics
(B) Functional genomics
(C) Proteomics
(D) Transmeiosis
Answer: (B)
10. A flowering plant lily have ______ more DNA than humans
(A) 10 times
(B) 15 times
(C) 18 times
(D) 13 times
Answer: (C)
11. In forensic science which of the following is used?
(A) Bacterial cloning
(B) DNA foot printing
(C) DNA fingerprinting
(D) DNA cloning
Answer: (C)
12. DNA fingerprinting is based on
(A) Occurance of VNTR’s
(B) Knowledge of human karyotype
(C) Cloned DNA
(D) Recombinant DNA
Answer: (A)
13. VNTRs represnets-
(A) New terminal regions in DNA
(B) Functional genes in the DNA
(C) Split genes in the sample DNA
(D) Specific non-coding sequences with unique tandem repeats
Answer: (D)
14. Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures?
(A) Anther wall
(B) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(C) Connective tissue
(D) Young pollengrains
Answer: (D)
15. Variations observed during tissue culture of some plants are known as
(A) Clonal variations
(B) Somatic variations
(C) Somaclonal variations
(D) Tissue culture variations
Answer: (C)
16. Virus free plants can be obtained through
(A) Anitibiotic treatment
(B) Bordeaux micture
(C) Root tip culture
(D) Shoot tip culture
Answer: (D)
17. To raising of plants from a small tissue in culture is known as
(A) Macroproduction
(B) Micropropagation
(C) Tissue culture
(D) Mass production
Answer: (B)
18. Callus is
(A) Tissue that forms embryo
(B)  an insoluble carbohydrate
(C) Unorganised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture
(D) Tissue that growth to form embryoid
Answer: (C)
19. Biopatents are ______.
(A) Right to use invention
(B) Right to use biological entities
(C) Right to use products
(D) Right to use process
Answer: (B)
20. African plant Pentadiplandra is used as______.
(A) Low calories sweetner
(B) 2000 times sweeter agent
(C) Sweetner for diabetic patients
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
21. Which organism was used as bioweapon derived from______.
(A) Clostridium
(B) Yerstsinia pestis
(C) Fusarium species
(D) Green algae
Answer: (C)
22. A set standards used to regulate own or community activity in relation to biological world is
(A) Biopotency
(B) Biopiracy
(C) Biowar
(D) Bioethics
Answer: (D)
23. Biopiracy means
(A) Use of biopatents
(B) Thefts of plants and animals
(C) Stealing of bioresources
(D) Exploitation of bioresources without authentic permission
Answer: (D)
24. Bioethcs is related to
(A) Preventing biopiracy
(B) Regulation of unethical activities likegene cloning in animals
(C) Preventing theft of living materials
(D) Moral guidance to the problems in biology
Answer: (B)
25. Three dimensional shape of tRNA is
(A) L-shaped
(B) Clover leaf-like
(C) X-shaped
(D) Y-shaped
Answer: (B)

The term cistorn, muton and recon were introduced by


1. The term cistorn, muton and recon were introduced by
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) S. Benzer
(C) Meselson
(D) Morgan
Answer: (B)
2. Extranuclear genetic material is found in
(A) Plastid and nucleus
(B) Mitochondria and plastids
(C) Nucleus and cytoplasm
(D) Mitochondria and nucleus
Answer: (B)
3. The molecular formulae of deoxyribose sugar and ribose sugar respectively are
(A) C5 H10 O4 and C5H10O6
(B) C5 H10 O4 and C5H10O5
(C) C5 H10 O5 and C5H10O4
(D) C5 H10 O5 and C6H10O4
Answer: (B)
4. The nitrogen bases which pair with two hydrogen bonds are
(A) Adenine and thymine
(B) Adenine and Cytosine
(C) Cytosine and guanine
(D) Cytosine and adenine
Answer: (A)
5. DNA differs from RNA in
(A) Presence of deoxyribose sugar
(B) Presence of thymine base
(C) Property of replication
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
6. DNA molecules makes a complete turn after every
(A) 20 Å
(B) 34 Å
(B) 3.4 Å
(D) 10 base pairs
Answer: (D)
7. The distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is
(A) 34 Å
(B) 36 Å
(C) 20 Å
(D) 3.4 Å
Answer: (D)
8. In nucleoside, nitrogen base is attached to pentose sugar at
(A) Carbon – 1 of pentose sugar
(B) Carbon – 2  of pentose sugar
(C) Carbon – 4 of pentose sugar
(D) Carbon – 5 of pentose sugar
Answer: (A)
9. If the strand of DNA has 35 nucleotide how many phosphodiester bonds would exist
(A) 34
(B) 35
(C) 24
(D) 70
Answer: (A)
10. In eukaryotic DNA replication, lagging strand is formed by
(A) RNA fragments
(B) Okazaki fragments
(C) DNA fragments
(D) Nucleotide fragments
Answer: (B)
11. The enzyme DNA polymerase can work only in
(A) 3¢ ® 5¢ direction
(B) 5¢ ® 3¢ direction
(C) Both the direction
(D) 5¢ ® 5¢ direction
Answer: (B)
12. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during DNA replication is
(A) DNA primase
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA polymerase I
(D) DNA polymerase III
Answer: (C)
13. During DNA replication, the reunion or recoiling of separated DNA strand is prevented by
(A) Helix destabilizing protein
(B) Single strnad binding protein
(C) Rep protein
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
14. The enzyme that cuts the bonds of DNA molecule at the origin of replication is
(A) Endonuclease
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) DNA gyrase
(D) DNA ligase
Answer: (A)
15. Which of the following enzyme is required to release the tension imposed by uncoiling of strands?
(A) Endonuclease
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA gyrase
(D) DNA helicase
Answer: (C)
16. The cellular composition of m-RNA is
(A) 5-10%
(B) 3-5%
(C) 10-20 %
(D) 70-80%
Answer: (B)
17. Formation of mRNA from DNA is called
(A) Transformation
(B) Transduction
(C) Traslation
(D) Transcription
Answer: (D)
18. The ratio of purines and pyrimidines in mRNA is not 1:1 because the nitrogenous bases are
(A) Unpaired
(B) Paired
(C) Paired only in loops
(D) Paired in stems
Answer: (A)
19. The codons which may present at 3¢ end of mRNA
(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UGA
(D) Any one of these
Answer: (D)
20. Which of the following is not tool of genetic engineering?
(A) Vectors
(B) Enzymes
(C) Foreign DNA
(D) GMO
Answer: (D)
21. In recombinant DNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by
(A) Modified DNA ligase
(B) A heated alkaline solution
(C) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA
(D) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA
Answer: (C)
22. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is
(A) PBR 328
(B) PBR 322
(C) PBR 325
(D) PBR 330
Answer: (B)
23. ‘Nif gene’ for nitrogen fixation is cereal crops like wheat, jowar etc. is introduced by cloning
(A) Rhizobium meliloti
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizopus
(D) Rhizophora
Answer: (A)
24. Eco RI is an
(A) Ligase
(B) Polymerase
(C) Restriction enzyme
(D) Gyrase
Answer: (C)
25. The transgenic plant flavr savr tomato carries an artificial gene for
(A) Delay ripening process
(B) Longer shell life
(C) Added flavours
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)

Banana bunchytop virus is transmitted through


1.Fleshy fruits with stony endocarp are called
(A) Berries
(B) Pomes
(C) Drupes
(D) Capsules
Answer: (C)
2.Fertilization occur in
(A) Uterus
(B) Ureter
(C) Vagina
(D) Fallopian tube
Answer: (D)
3.Examples for lateral meristems are
(A) Fascicular cambium and procambium
(B) Procambium and dermatogen
(C) Fascicular cambium and cork cambium
(D) Phellogen and procambium
Answer: (C)
4.Example of water soluble plant pigment is
(A) Chlorophyll-a
(B) Chlorophyll-b
(C) Anthocyanin
(D) Xanthophyll
Answer: (C)
5.Everytime, when the dosage of a drug has to be increased to achieve the same ‘kick’ that initially occurred in response to a smaller dose, this condition is known as _______.
(A) Tolerance
(B) Rebound effect
(C) Addiction
(D) Withdrawal symptoms
Answer: (A)
6.Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
(A) 0.05 Å
(B) 0.15 Å
(C) 0.25 Å
(D) 0.30 Å
Answer: (A)
7.Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
(A) CT Scan
(B) Sphygmomanometer
(C) ECG
(D) EEG
Answer: (D)
8.Edible part of Mushroom is
(A) Basidiocarp
(B) Primary mycelium
(C) Fungal hyphae
(D) Basidiospores
Answer: (A)
9.During Lactic acid fermentation, _______.
(A) O2 is used, CO2 is liberated.
(B) O2 is not used, CO2 is liberated.
(C) O2 is used, CO2 is not liberated.
(D) neither O2 is used, nor CO2 is liberated.
Answer: (D)
10.Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, sperms carry both sex chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O).
If these sperms fertilize normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?
(A) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome
(B) Turner’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome
(D) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
11.Dog distemper is a disease carried by a ________.
(A) bacterium
(B) viroid
(C) prion
(D) virus
Answer:  (D)
12.DNA gyrase, the enzyme that participates in the process of DNA replication is a type of
(A) Reverse Transcriptase
(B) DNA Topoisomerase
(C) DNA Polymerase
(D) DNA Ligase
Answer: (B)
13.A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
(A) Zygomorphic
(B) Actinomorphic
(C) Regular
(D) Perfect
Answer: (A)
14.An animal which has both exoskeletal and endoskeletal structures is
(A) Tortoise
(B) Frog
(C) Jelly fish
(D) Fresh water mussel
Answer: (A)
15.Banana bunchytop virus is transmitted through 
(A) Pentalonia nigronervosa
(B) Aedes aegypti
(C) Culex sp
(D) Agribacterium sp
Answer:  (A)

Identify the correct statement


1.In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
(A) 1.7 litres
(B) 7 litres
(C) 17 litres
(D) 170 litres
Answer: (D)
2.If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive character (a) the genotype of parents are
(A) Aa × Aa
(B) Aa × aa
(C) AA × aa
(D) AA × Aa
Answer: (B)
3.Identify the incorrect statement with respect to Calvin cycle.
(A) The first stable intermediate compound formed is phosphoglycerate.
(B) 18 molecules of ATP are synthesised during carbon fixation.
(C) NADPH + H+ produced in light reaction is used to reduce diphosphoglycerate.
(D) The carboxylation of RuBP is catalysed by rubisco.
Answer: (B)
4.Identify the group which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly.
(A) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
(B) Shrew, Bat, Kiwi, Cat
(C) Lion, Whale, Ostrich, Bat
(D) Dolphin, Kangaroo, Bat, Cat
Answer: (D)
5.How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
6.How do you differentiate a frog from a toad?
(A) Frog has no exoskeleton but toad has scales
(B) Frog respires through lungs but toad respires through skin
(C) Frog has a tail but toad has no tail
(D) Frog has no parotid glands but toad has a pair of parotid glands
Answer:  (D)
7.How do you differentiate a butterfly from a moth?
(A) Moth has one pair of wings but butterfly has two pairs of wings.
(B) Moth has feathery antennae but butterfly has club shaped antennae.
(C) Moth has simple eyes but butterfly has compound eyes.
(D) Moth is diurnal but butterfly is nocturnal.
Answer: (B)
8.Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
(A) proximal tubule
(B) distal tubule
(C) collecting duct
(D) loop of Henle
Answer: (A)
9.Gastrula has a pore which is known as _______.
(A) Gonophore
(B) Blastopore
(C) Oospore
(D) Zoospore
Answer: (B)
10.Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of ________.
(A) Hibiscus
(B) Nephrolepis
(C) Cycas
(D) Riccia
Answer:  (D)
11.Four children belonging to the same parents have the following blood groups A, B, AB and O. Hence, the genotypes of the two parents are ______.
(A) Both parents are homozygous for ‘A’ group
(B) One parent is homozygous for ‘A’ and another parent is homozygous for ‘B’
(C) One parent is heterozygous for ‘A’ and another parent is heterozygous for ‘B’
(D) Both parents are homozygous for ‘B’ group
Answer:  (C)
12.According to Darwin, evolution is _______.
(A) a slow, gradual and continuous process.
(B) a sudden but discontinuous process.
(C) a slow and discontinuous process.
(D) a slow, sudden and discontinuous process.
Answer: (A)
13.According to Boyle’s law, the product of pressure and volume is a constant. Hence,
(A) if volume of lungs is increased, the pressure also increases proportionately.
(B) if volume of lungs is increased. the pressure decreases proportionately.
(C) if volume of lungs is increased, the pressure remains the same.
(D) if volume of lungs is increased, the pressure decreases disproportionately.
Answer: (B)
14.A true breeding plant producing red flowers is crossed with a pure plant producing white flowers. Allele for red colour of flower is dominant. After selfing the plants of first filial generation. the proportion of plants producing white flowers in the progeny would be
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 3/4
Answer: (A)
15.Identify the correct statement :
(A) The age of the plant can be determined by its height.
(B) Healing of damaged tissue is because of the activity of sclerenchyma cells.
(C) Grafting is difficult in monocot plants as they have scattered vascular bundles.
(D) Because of marked climatic variations, plants growing near the sea shore do not produce annual rings.
Answer: (C)

.In a tissue culture media, the resource of the phytohormone is


1.A plant cell becomes turgid due to
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Exosmosis
(C) Endosmosis
(D) Electrolysis
Answer: (C)
2.A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
(A) Bronchitis
(B) Rhinitis
(C) Bronchial carcinoma
(D) Cyanosis
Answer: (B)
3.A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumor in
(A) Pons
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Medulla Oblongata
Answer: (C)
4.A RBC and a plant cell (with thick cell wall) are placed in distilled water. The solute concentration is the same in both the cells. What changes would be observed in them?
(A) The RBC would increase in size and burst while the plant cell would remain about the same size.
(B) The plant cell would increase in size and burst while the RBC would remain about the same size.
(C) Both plant cell and RBC would decrease in size and collapse.
(D) Both plant cell and RBC would not undergo any change.
Answer: (A)
5.In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed?
(A) Leptotene
(B) Zygotene
(C) Pachytene
(D) Diplotene
Answer: (C)
6.In the absence of enterokinase, the digestion of _______ would be affected in our intestine.
(A) Amino acid
(B) Albumin
(C) Starch
(D) Maltose
Answer: (B)
7.In the absence of acrosome, the sperm _______.
(A) cannot get energy
(B) cannot penetrate the egg
(C) cannot swim
(D) cannot get food
Answer: (B)
8.In genetic fingerprinting, the ‘probe’ refers to _______.
(A) a radioactively labelled single stranded RNA molecule.
(B) a radioactively labelled single stranded DNA molecule.
(C) a radioactively labelled double stranded DNA molecule.
(D) a radioactively labelled double stranded RNA molecule.
Answer: (B)
9.In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called
(A) Colinearity
(B) Commaless
(C) Degeneracy
(D) Nonambiguity
Answer:  (C)
10.In crop improvement programmes, virus-free clones can be obtained through
(A) Hybridization
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Shoot apex culture
(D) Grafting
Answer: (C)
11.In C4 pathway, the CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells is carried out by the enzyme _______.
(A) Rubisco
(B) PEP carboxylase
(C) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Answer: (B)
12.In an experiment demonstrating the evolution of oxygen in Hydrilla, Sodium bicarbonate is added to water in the experimental set-up. What would happen if all other conditions are favourable?
(A) Amount of oxygen evolved increases as the availability of carbon dioxide increases.
(B) Amount of oxygen evolved decreases as the availability of carbon dioxide increases.
(C) Amount of oxygen evolved increases as carbon dioxide in Water is absorbed by sodium bicarbonate.
(D) Amount of oxygen evolved decreases as carbon dioxide in water is absorbed by sodium bicarbonate.
Answer: (A)
13.In a typical Mendelian cross which is a dihybrid cross, one parent is homozygous for both dominant traits and another parent is homozygous for both recessive traits. In the f2 generation, both parental combinations and recombinations appear. The phenotypic ratio of parental combinations to recombinations is ________.
(A) 10 : 6
(B) 12 : 4
(C) 9 : 7
(D) 15 : 1
Answer:  (A)
14.In a typical heart, if EDV is 120 ml of blood and ESV is 50 ml of blood, the stroke volume (SV) is
(A) 120 – 50 = 70 ml
(B) 120 + 50 = 170 ml
(C) 120 ´ 50 = 6000 ml
(D) 120 ÷ 50 = 2.4 ml
Answer:  (A)
15.In a tissue culture media, the resource of the phytohormone is
(A) Agar agar
(B) Glucose
(C) Micronutrients
(D) Coconut milk
Answer:  (D)

Kupffer’s cells are


1.More men suffer from colour blindness than women because
(A) women are more resistant to disease than men
(B) the male sex hormone testosterone cause the disease
(C) the colour blind gene is carried on the ‘Y’ chromosome
(D) men are hemizygous and one defective gene is enough to make them colour blind
Answer:  (D)
2.Mitotic stages are not observed in ________.
(A) Cosmarium
(B) E.coli
(C) Saccharomyces
(D) Chlorella
Answer:  (B)
3.Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results. From that he concluded that _______.
(A) sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait.
(B) there is independent assortment of traits.
(C) sex has no influence on the dominance of traits.
(D) there is no dominance of any trait.
Answer: (C)
4.Meissner’s corpuscles occur in
(A) Brain
(B) Nerve cells
(C) Skin
(D) Tongue
Answer: (C)
5.Match the types of the fruits listed in Column I, with the examples listed on Column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.
Column – I                   Column – II
A. Capsule                  p.  Paddy
B.  Berry                    q.  Mango
C.  Drupe                    r.  Sunflower
D.  Cypsela                 s.  Tomato
                                   t.  Ladies finger
(A) A = t, B = s, C = q, D = r
(B) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = q
(C) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
(D) A = p, B = q, C = r, D = t
Answer:  (A)
6.Match the types of immunity listed in Column I with the examples listed in Column II.
Choose the answer that gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns :
Column I                      Column II
Types of immunity      Example
A. Natural active          p. Immunity developed by heredity
B. Artificial passive     q. From mother to foetus through placenta
C. Artificial active         r. Injection of antiserum to travellers
D. Natural passive     s. Fighting infections naturally
                                       t. Induced by vaccination
(A) A = t, B = s, C = r, D = p
(B) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
(C) A = s, B = r, C = t, D = q
(D) A = p, B = q, C = r, D)=t
Answer: (C)
7.Match the names of the economically important plants (or their products) listed in Column-I with the families to which they belong given in column-II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns :
Column - I                   Column - II
A. Sunflower               p. Acanthaceae
B. Tulsi                        q. Compositae
C. Coffee                     r. Labiatae
D. Vasaka                   s. Rubiaceae
                                      t. Euphorbiaceae
(A) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p
(B) A = q, B = s, C = p, D = t
(C) A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q
(D) A = r, B = t. C = s, D = q
Answer: (A)
8.Match the compounds given in column-I with the number of carbon atoms present in them which are listed under column-II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.
Column - I                                 Column - II
A. Oxaloacetate                        p. 6 - C compound
B. Phosphoglyceraldehyde    q. 5 - C compound
C. lsocitrate                               r. 4 - C compound
D. a-Ketoglutarate                    s. 3 - C compound
                                                     t. 2 - C compound
(A) A = r, B = s, C = p, D = q
(B) A = r, B = t. C = p, D = q
(C) A = q. B = s. C = p. D = t
(D) A = s, B = t. C = q, D = r
Answer: (A)

9.Match the animals listed in Column I with their of nature of blood listed in Column II.
Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

Column I             Column II
A. Man                 p. Plasma and cells are colourless
B. Earthworm    q. Plasma is colourless and nucleated RBC
C. Cockroach     r. Plasma is colourless and enucleated RBC
D. Frog                s. Plasma is red and nucleated, colourless RBC
                              t. Plasma and RBC have hemoglobin.

(A) A = s, B = t, C = r, D = q
(B) A = r, B = s, C = p, D = q
(C) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s
(D) A = p, B = s, C = q, D=r
G

10.Mannitol is
(A) Amino Acid
(B) Amino alcohol
(C) Sugar alcohol
(D) Sugar acid
Answer: (C)

11.Longest phase of meiosis
(A) Prophase I
(B) Prophase II
(C) Anaphase I
(D) Metaphase II
Answer: (A)
12.lf the systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg, the pulse pressure is ______.
(A) 120 + 80 = 200mmHg
(B) 120 x 80 = 9600mmHg
(C) 120/80 = mmHg
(D) l20 - 80 = 40mmHg
Answer: (D)
13.lf the person shows the production of interferons in his body, chances are that he is suffering from
(A) Malaria
(B) Measles
(C) Tetanus
(D) Anthrax
Answer: (B)
14.Kupffer’s cells are
(A) Phagocytic
(B) Actin
(C) Myosin
(D) Fibrin
Answer: (A)
15.Inulin is a polymer of
(A) Glucose
(B) Galactose
(C) Fructose
(D) Arabinose
Answer: (C)

Which statement about photosynthesis is false?


1. A large quantity of fluid is filtered every day by the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate
(A) is lost as sweat
(B) is stored in the urinary bladder
(C) is reabsorbed into the blood
(D) gets collected in the renal pelvis
Answer: (C)
2.With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(B) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(C) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(D) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme
Answer:  (B)
3.With reference to enzymes, turnover number means _______.
(A) the number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per second.
(B) the number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per hour.
(C) the number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per day.
(D) the number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per minute.
Answer: (D)
4.Who wrote the famous book ‘Origin of Species’?
(A) Lamarck
(B) Darwin
(C) De Vries
(D) Mendel
Answer: (B)
5.Which the following is a gastrointestinal hormone?
(A) Prolactin
(B) Enterokinase
(C) GH
(D) FSH
Answer: (B)
6.Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate?
(A) Glucose
(B) Urea
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Water
Answer: (C)
7.Which statement about photosynthesis is false?
(A) Photosynthesis is a redox process in which water is oxidised and carbon dioxide is reduced.
(B) The enzymes required for carbon fixation are located only in the grana of chloroplasts.
(C) In green plants, both PS I and PS II are required for the formation of NADPH + H+.
(D) The electron carriers involved in photophosphorylation are located on the thylakoid membranes
Answer: (B)
8.Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man?
(A) Gametocyte
(B) Merozoite
(C) Cryptomerozoite
(D) Sporozoite
Answer: (D)
9.Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon?
(A) UGU
(B) AAU
(C) UUG
(D) UAG
Answer: (D)
10.Which one of the following theories on the origin of life is mostly accepted?
(A) Special creation
(B) Steady state
(C) Panspermia
(D) Chemical origin
Answer:  (D)
11.Which one of the following synthetic growth regulators is used to promote synchronized
flowering in pineapple?
(A) Phenylmercuric Acetate
(B) Benzyl Aminopurine
(C) 2-chloroethylphosphonic acid
(D) none of these
Answer: (C)
12.Which one of the following statements about the events of noncyclic photophosphorylation is NOT correct?
(A) ATP and NADPH are not produced.
(B) Photolysis of water takes place.
(C) O2 is released.
(D) none of these
Answer: (A)
13.Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?
During Protein synthesis, _______.
(A) Tyrosine is coded by UAU and UAC codons.
(B) Cysteine is coded by UGU and UGC codons.
(C) UGG codon codes for Tryptophan.
(D) UAA codon codes for Lysine.
Answer: (D)
14.Which one of the following species of earthworm is NOT recommended for vermicomposting?
(A) Eisenia fetidae
(B) Eudrilus eugeniae
(C) Pheretima Posthuma
(D) Perionyx excavatus
Answer: (C)
15.Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?
(A) Conversion of succinate to fumerate
(B) Conversion of fumerate to malate
(C) Conversion of private to acetyl CoA
(D) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate
Answer:  (C)

Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is


1.Succus entericus is secreted by _______.
(A) Brunner’s glands
(B) Auerbach’s plexus
(C) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(D) Peyers patches
Answer: (C)
2.Structural lipids of cell membrane
(A) Simple lipid
(B) Chromolipids
(C) Steroid
(D) Phospholipids
Answer: (D)
3.Structural element of Chromatin is
(A) Histone
(B) Acid protein and DNA
(C) Nuclear matrix
(D) Nucleosomes
Answer: (D)
4.Sporopollenin, a chemical substance is found in _______.
(A) Exine of pollen grain
(B) Intine of pollen grain
(C) Tapetum of anther
(D) Endothecium of anther
Answer: (A)
5.Spindle fibre is made up of
(A) Humulin
(B) Intermediate filament
(C) Flagellin
(D) Tubulin
Answer: (D)
6.Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A - Secretion of FSH, B - Growth of corpus luteum, C - Growth of the follicle and oogenesis, D - Ovulation, E - Sudden increase in the lcvcls of LH
(A) A ® C ® E ® D ® B
(B) A ® D ® C ® E ® B
(C) B ® A ® C ® D ® E
(D) C ® A ® D ® B ® E
Answer: (A)
7.Silk produced by Antheraea mylitta is also called
(A) Muga silk
(B) Tassar silk
(C) Eri silk
(D) Mysore silk
Answer:  (B)
8.Ribose sugar is present in
(A) RNA only
(B) RNA polymerase and ATP
(C) RNA and ATP
(D) RNA polymerase. RNA and ATP
Answer: (C)
9.Restriction enzymes are used to cut
(A) Single stranded RNA
(B) Double stranded DNA
(C) Single stranded DNA
(D) Double stranded RNA
Answer: (B)
10.Read the following statements A and B.
A: Many organs of aquatic plants float in water.
B: Large air gaps are present in the collenchyma tissues of lotus leaf.
Select the correct answer.
(A) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
(B) Statement B is correct and A is wrong
(C) Statements A and B both are correct
(D) Statements A and B both are wrong
Answer:  (A)
11.Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, needed for the conversion of Pyruvic acid to Acetyl
CO-A is located in _______.
(A) Intermembranal space of mitochondria
(B) Matrix of mitochondria
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Grana of chloroplast
Answer: (B)
12.Stoma opens when
(A) Guard cells swell by endosmosis due to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
(B) Guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions.
(C) Guard cells swell due to a decrease in their water potential.
(D) Guard cells swell due to an increase in their Water potential.
Answer: (D)
13.Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is
(A) Always upright
(B) Always inverted
(C) Mostly upright
(D) Mostly inverted
Answer: (A)
14.Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
(A) Pepsin
(B) Mucus
(C) Rennin
(D) HCl
Answer: (D)
15.Some of the steps involved in the production of Humulin are given below. Choose the correct sequence.
i) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially.
ii) Culturing recombinant E.c0li in bioreactors.
iii) Purification of humulin.
iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid.
v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E.coli.
vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product from E.coli.
(A) i, iii, v, vi, ii, iv
(B) ii, i, iv, iii. v, vi
(C) iii, v, ii, i, vi, iv
(D) i, iv, v, ii, vi, iii
Answer: (D)

The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by


1.The characteristic that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are
A. They are nitrogenous wastes
B. They all need very large amount of water for excretion
C. They are all equally toxic
D. They are produced in the kidneys
(A) A and D
(B) A, C and D
(C) A only
(D) A and C
Answer: (C)
2.The 2005 Nobel Prize for Physiology / Medicine was awarded to Barry Marshall and Robin Warren of Australia for their discover of ________.
(A) human papilloma virus causing cervical cancer
(B) bacterium Helicobacter pylori causing peptic ulcer
(C) prions, a new biological principle of infection
(D) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Answer:  (B)
3.The main aim of the human genome project is _______.
(A) to identify and sequence all the genes present in human DNA.
(B) to introduce new genes into humans.
(C) to remove disease causing genes from human DNA.
(D) to develop better techniques for comparing two different human DNA samples.
Answer: (A)
4.The lactase hydrolyzes lactose into
(A) Glucose
(B) Glucose and galactose
(C) Fructose
(D) Glucose and fructose
Answer: (B)
5.Tetany is caused by
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Hypothyroidism
Answer: (B)
6.The agents which are known to cause CJD are
(A) A class of bacteria
(B) A class of viruses
(C) Fungi
(D) Protein particles
Answer: (D)
7.The loosely arranged non-chlorophyllous parenchyma cells present in lenticels are called
(A) Complementary cells
(B) Passage cells
(C) Water stomata
(D) Albuminous cells
Answer:  (A)
8.The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is
(A) extensive mixed cropping
(B) introduction of high yielding varieties
(C) extensive use of fertilisers
(D) extensive use of insecticides and pesticides
Answer: (D)
9.The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by
(A) Blood cells
(B) Bone cells
(C) Sex chromosomes
(D) Autosomes
Answer: (D)
10.The Gastrin is secreted from
(A) Intestine
(B) Stomach
(C) Pancreas
(D) Rectum
Answer: (B)
11.The force responsible for upward conduction of water against gravity comes from
(A) transpiration
(B) photosynthesis
(C) translocation
(D) respiration
Answer:  (A)
12.The cause of cretinism is
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: (A)
13.The brainstem is made up of
(A) Midbrain, pons, cerebellum
(B) Midbrain, pond, medulla oblongata
(C) Diencephalon, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
(D) Cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla oblongata
Answer:  (B)
14.The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents
(A) Nerve ring
(B) Cervical papilla
(C) Excretory system
(D) Reproductive
Answer: (C)
15.The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
(A) 500 ml
(B) 140 ml
(C) 1 litre
(D) 1.5 ml
Answer: (B)

The name of the pacemaker of the heart is


1.The sugar present in milk is _______.
(A) Sucrose
(B) Fructose
(C) Lactose
(D) Glucose
Answer: (C)
2.The space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall of a plasmolyzed cell surrounded by a hypertonic solution is occupied by the
(A) hypotonic solution
(B) isotonic solution
(C) hypertonic solution
(D) water
Answer:  (C)
3.The single horned Rhinoceros is protected at _______.
(A) Kaziranga National Park
(B) Kahna National Park
(C) Rajiv Gandhi National Park
(D) Anashi National Park
Answer: (A)
4.The number of ATP produced when a molecule of glucose undergoes fermentation is
(A) 4
(B) 36
(C) 2
(D) 38
Answer:  (C)
5.The offspring produced from a marriage have only O or A blood groups. Of the genotypes given below, the possible genotypes of the parents would be
(A) IOIO and IOIO
(B) IAIA and IOIO
(C) IAIO and IOIO
(D) IAIA and IAIO
Answer: (C)
6.The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and thirst is located is
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Medulla Oblongata
Answer: (B)
7.The species, though insignificant in number, determine the existence of many other species in a given ecosystem. Such species is known as
(A) Keystone species
(B) Sacred species
(C) Endemic species
(D) Extinct species
Answer: (A)
8.The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
(A) Bombyx mori
(B) Antheraea mylitta
(C) Antheraea assamensis
(D) Philosomia ricini
Answer: (B)
9.The rosette habit of cabbage can be changed by application of
(A) IAA
(B) GA
(C) ABA
(D) Ethaphon
Answer:  (B)
10.The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
(A) the nature of the substrate
(B) the amount of carbon dioxide released
(C) the amount of oxygen utilised
(D) the nature of enzymes involved
Answer: (A)
11.The reflex arc, which is made of two neurones is known as
(A) Monosynaptic reflex arc
(B) Disynaptic reflex arc
(C) Polysynaptic refles arc
(D) Asynaptic reflex arc
Answer: (A)
12.The presence of corollary corona, sagittate anthers and dumb-bell shaped stigma are the
characteristic features of _______.
(A) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis
(B) Musa paradisiaca
(C) Ravenala madagascariensis
(D) Catheranthus roseus
Answer: (D)
13.The name of the pacemaker of the heart is
(A) Lymph node
(B) S.A. node
(C) Juxtaglumerular apparatus
(D) Semilunar valve
Answer: (B)
14.The name of Smt. Thimmakka is associated with the
(A) planting and conservation of avenue trees
(B) agitations against hydroelectric project
(C) ‘Appiko’ movement
(D) conservationof fauna and flora of the western ghats
Answer:  (A)
15.The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
(A) Cell membrane
(B) Cell wall
(C) Ribosome
(D) Mitochondria
Answer: (B)

What is a genophore?


 1.When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water________.
(A) the contractile vacuole disappears
(B) the contractile vacuole increases in size
(C) a number of contractile vacuoles appear
(D) the contractile vacuole remains unchanged
Answer:  (A)
2.A dorsal horn is present on the ________ of mulberry silk worm (caterpillar).
(A) 8th abdominal segment
(B) 5th abdominal segment
(C) 2nd thoracic segment
(D) Head
Answer: (A)
3.A balanced diet does NOT include ________.
(A) Carbohydrates and fats
(B) Nucleic acids and enzymes
(C) Proteins and vitamins
(D) Minerals and salts
Answer:  (B)
4.To meet the demands of the society, in vitro production of a large number of plantlets in a short duration is practiced in floriculture and horticulture industry today. This is called _______.
(A) Soma clonal variation
(B) Hybridoma technology
(C) Micropropagation
(D) Somatic hybridization
Answer: (C)
5.The term genetic RNA refers to
(A) the RNA that carries genetic message
(B) the RNA that helps gene regulation in lac-operon
(C) the RNA present in mitochondria
(D) none of the above
Answer:  (A)
6.When 2 to 3 drops of Benedicts reagent are added to a urine sample and heated gently, it turns yellow. This colour change indicates that ________.
(A) Urine contains 1.5% glucose
(B) Urine contains 2% glucose
(C) Urine contains 0.5th  glucose
(D) Urine contains 1% glucose
Answer:  (D)
7.What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG?
(A) TAC – GTC
(B) UAC – GUC
(C) UCA – TUA
(D) TCA – GTC
Answer: (B)
8.What is/are true about heart wood?
A. It does not help in water conduction.
B. It is also called alburnum.
C. It is dark in colour but very soft.
D. It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) A, B and C
(D) B. C and D
Answer: (A)
9.What is a genophore?
(A) DNA in prokaryotes
(B) DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
(C) DNA and protein in prokaryotes
(D) RNA in prokaryotes
Answer: (B)
10.Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of
(A) Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
(B) Ootid in the fallopian tube
(C) Secondary Oocyte in the fallopian tube
(D) Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle
Answer: (D)
11.Tyloses are found in _______.
(A) secondary xylem
(B) secondary phloem
(C) sclerenchyma fibres
(D) sclereids
Answer: (A)
12.Transpiration facilitates
(A) Opening of stomata
(B) Absorption of water by roots
(C) Excretion of minerals
(D) Electrolyte balance
Answer: (B)
13.The World Intellectual Property Day is observed on ________.
(A) February, 29tth
(B) June, 30th
(C) April, 26th
(D) September, 5th
Answer:  (C)
14.The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are ________.
(A) 100 S
(B) 80 S
(C) 60 S
(D) 70 S
Answer:  (D)
15.The term, ‘southern blotting’ refers to
(A) transfer of DNA fragments from invitro cellulose membrane to electrophoresis gel
(B) attachment of probes to DNA fragments
(C) transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoresis gel to nitrocellulose sheet.
(D) comparison of DNA fragments from two sources
Answer:  (C)

When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called


1.Which of following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
(A) TSH and ACTH
(B) Oestrogen and progesterone
(C) FSH and LH
(D) Vassopressin and oxytocin
Answer: (C)
2.When red blood corpuscles containing both A and B antigens are mixed with your blood serum, they agglutinate. Hence your blood group is _______ type.
(A) O
(B) AB
(C) B
(D) A
Answer: (A)
3.When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is
(A) Dyspnea
(B) Hypoxia
(C) Asphyxia
(D) Apnea
Answer: (B)
4.Which of the following is properly matched?
(A) Echinodermata - Asteroidea - Star fish
(B) Arthropoda -Insecta -Spider
(C) Mollusca - Cephalopoda - Unio
(D) Platyhelminthes -Trematoda - Planaria
Answer: (A)
5.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Sycon – Canal system
(B) Star fish – Radial symmetry
(C) Ascaris – Flame cell
(D) Prawn – Haemocoel
Answer: (C)
6.Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Oxygen
(D) Water vapour
Answer: (C)
7.Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid?
(A) Testosterone
(B) Progesterone
(C) Adrenalin
(D) Aldosterone
Answer: (D)
8.Which of the following hormones is a steroid?
(A) Estrogen
(B) Insulin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Thyroxine
Answer:  (A)
9.Which of the following hormones does not naturally occur in plants?
(A) IAA
(B) GA
(C) ABA
(D) 2, 4 - D
Answer: (D)
10.Which of the following hormones does not contain a polypeptide?
(A) Oxytocin
(B) Insulin
(C) Antidiuretic hormone
(D) Prostaglandin
Answer: (D)
11.Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe?
(A) Hearing
(B) Speech
(C) Vision
(D) Memory
Answer: (C)
12.Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature
(A) Anterior hypothalamus
(B) Posterior hypothalamus
(C) Limbic system
(D) Red nucleus
Answer: (A)
13.When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
(A) Habitat
(B) Niche
(C) Ecotone
(D) Ecotype
Answer: (C)
14.When the blood contains a high percentage of CO2 and a very low percentage of O2, the breathing stops and the person becomes unconscious. This condition is known as
(A) suffocation
(B) asphyxia
(C) emphycema
(D) eupnoea
Answer:  (B)
15.When DNA replication starts
(A) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break.
(B) The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break.
(C) The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break.
(D) The leading strand produces okazaki fragments.
Answer: (A)

Who is the father of biology ?


Aristotle
Born: c. 384 BCE in Stagira, Macedonia
Died: c. 322 BCE
Answer:- Aristotle was an ancient Greek philosopher whose work has been extremely important to the development of both western philosophy and western theology. It has traditionally been thought that Aristotle started out in agreement with Plato and gradually moved away from his ideas, but recent research suggests just the opposite.

Wednesday, February 27, 2013

Which one is imino acid?

1.Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria?
(A) Nerve cell
(B) Red blood cell
(C) Liver cell
(D) White blood cell    Answer: (B)
2.Which of the following is related to humoral immunity?
(A) T-lymphocyte
(B) B-lymphocyte
(C) I-lymphocyte
(D) P-lymphocyte  Answer: (B)
3.Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area?
(A) Sibling species
(B) Allopatric species
(C) Sympatric species
(D) Endemic species   Answer: (D)
4.Which of the following prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in an undamaged blood vessel?
(A) Calcium ions
(B) Thromboplastin
(C) Fibrinogen
(D) Heparin   Answer: (D)
5. Which one of the following is a unicellular, nonmotile desmid?
(A) Clostridium
(B) Chlorobium
(C) Cosmarium
(D) Chromatium  Answer: (C)
6. Which one of the following is a driving force for the process of ‘passive absorption of water in roots’?
(A) Root pressure
(B) The increase in imbibitional pressure in root cells.
(C) Transpiration in leaves
(D) Activity of aquaporins  Answer: (C)
7.  Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer?
(A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgA
(D) IgE   Answer: (B)
8. Which one of the following diseases is caused by Nosema bombycis in mulberry silkworm?
(A) Pebrine
(B) Muscadine
(C) Flacherie
(D) Grasserie    Answer: (A)
9.  Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell?
(A) Macrophage
(B) Monocyte
(C) Neutrophil
(D) Basophil   Answer: (D)
10.  Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens  Answer: (D)
11. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom?
(A) Platyhelminthes
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Echinodermata Answer: (A)
12. Which one is imino acid?
(A) Pepsin
(B) Proline
(C) Cysteine
(D) Renin  Answer: (B)
13. Which of the following would be in insignificant amount in xylem sap?
(A) Nitrates
(B) Phosphates
(C) Water
(D) Sugar    Answer: (D)
14. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson’s disease?
(A) GABA
(B) Acetylcholine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Glutamic acid  Answer: (C)
15.Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?
(A) SA node ® AV node ® Bundle of His ® Purkinje fibers
(B) AV node ® Bundle of His ® SA node ® Purkinje fibers
(C) SA node ® Purkinje fibers ® AV node ® Bundle of His
(D) Purkinje fibers ® AV node ® SA node ® Bundle of His Answer: (A)


A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by

1.2n = l6 in a primary spermatocyte which is in metaphase of first meiotic division. What shall be the total number of chromatids in each of the secondary spermatocyte?
(A) 8
(B) l6
(C) 24
(D) 32 Answer: (B)
2.A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
(A) Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length
(B) Proboscis long and palpi short
(C) Proboscis short and palpi long
(D) Both proboscis and palpi are short  Answer: (A)
3.Which one of the following pairs is an example for lateral meristem?
(A) Interfascicular cambium and phellem
(B) Procambium and phelloderm
(C) Phellogen and fascicular cambium
(D) Phellogen and phelloderm  Answer: (C)
4. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man?
(A) Homo habilis
(B) Australopithecus
(C) Rampithecus punjabicus
(D) Homo neanderthalensis Answer: (C)
5.Which one of the following is polysaccharide?
(A) Glycogen
(B) Sucrose
(C) Lactose
(D) Maltose  Answer: (A)
6. Which one of the following is NOT the reason for very high load of bilirubin in a newborn?
(A) The liver of the newborn is too young to cope up with the heavy load of bilirubin.
(B) Excessive red blood corpuscles in the newborn burst, releasing the bilirubin.
(C) Insoluble bilirubin in the intestine is reabsorbed by the blood.
(D) Mother’s milk contains a high amount of bilirubin. Answer: (D)
7.Which one of the following is NOT the function of insulin?
(A) Increase the oxidation of glucose in the cells.
(B) Increases the permeability of cell membrane to glucose.
(C) Initiates the formation of hepatic glycogen from excess of glucose.
(D) Initiates the conversion of glycogen to glucose. Answer: (D)
8.Which one of the following is not related to guttation?
(A) Water is given out in the form of droplets
(B) Water given out is impure
(C) Water is given out during daytime
(D) none of the above  Answer: (C)
9.Which one of the following is NOT an antitranspirant?
(A) PMA
(B) BAP
(C) Silicon oil
(D) Low viscosity Answer: (B)
10. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?
(A) Calcium
(B) Sodium
(C) cAMP
(D) cGMP Answer: (B)
11.Which one of the following is NOT a method of soil conservation?
(A) Overgrazing
(B) Mulching
(C) Crop rotation
(D) Strip cropping  Answer: (A)
12.Which one of the following is mainly responsible for green house effect?
(A) SO2
(B) CO2
(C) CO
(D) O2   Answer: (B)
13.Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Introns are present in m-RNA and exons are present in t-RNA
(B) Codons are present in m-RNA and anticodons in t-RNA
(C) Every intron is a set of three terminator codons
(D) Exons are present in eukaryotes while introns are present in prokaryotes  Answer: (B)
14.Which one of the following is an exotic carp species?
(A) Barbus stigma
(B) Cyprinus carpio
(C) Labeo bata
(D) Cirrhinus mrigala  Answer: (B)
15.  Which one of the following is an example of chlorophyllous thallophyte?
(A) Volvarialla
(B) Spirogyra
(C) Nephrolepis
(D) Gnetum   Answer: (B)

Populations are said to be sympatric when

1. Populations are said to be sympatric when _______.
(A) two populations are physically isolated by natural barriers.
(B) two populations live together and freely interbreed to produce sterile offspring.
(C) two populations share the same environment but cannot interbreed.
(D) two populations are isolated but occassionally come together to interbreed. Answer: (C)
2. Populations are said to be allopatric when ________.
(A) they are physically isolated by natural barriers
(B) they live together and breed freely to produce viable offspring
(C) they are isolated but often come together for breeding
(D) none of the above            Answer: (A)
3. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
(A) Autopolyploid
(B) Triploid
(C) Allopolyploid
(D) Monoploid              Answer: (C)
4. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n = 28 are cultured to get callus by tissue culture method. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the callus?
(A) 21
(B) I4
(C) 56
(D) 28        Answer: (B)
5.  Pinus belongs to the class ________.
(A) Gentopsida
(B) Cycadopsida
(C) Coniferopsida
(D) Sphenopsida            Answer: (C)
6.  Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called
(A) Explant
(B) Somaclone
(C) Inoculant
(D) Clone           Answer: (A)
7. Palaeontologists unearthed a human skull during excavation. A small fragment of the scalp tissue was still attached to it. Only little DNA could be extracted from it. lf the genes of the ancient man need to be analysed, the best way of getting sufficient amount of DNA from this extract is
(A) Subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction
(B) Subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis
(C) Treating the DNA with restriction endonucleases
(D) Hybridising the DNA with a DNA probe            Answer: (A)
8. Ovule integument gets transformed into
(A) seed
(B) fruit wall
(C) seed coat
(D) cotyledons            Answer: (C)
9 Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
(A) Infants due to protein energy malnutrition
(B) Adults due ot protein energy malnutrition
(C) Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency
(D) Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency            Answer: (C)
10. Nosema bombycis which causes pebrine in silk worms is a
(A) Virus
(B) Bacterium
(C) Protozoan
(D) Fungus           Answer: (C)
11. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) GH
(D) TSH         Answer: (C)
12.  Name the following having oxygen storing capacity
(A) Myoglobin
(B) Prophase II
(C) Anaphase I
(D) Metaphase II             Answer: (A)
13. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
(A) facial nerve
(B) trigeminal nerve
(C) hypoglossal nerve
(D) vagus nerve           Answer: (C)
14. Pick the mammal with true placenta
(A) Kangaroo
(B) Echidna
(C) Platypus
(D) Mongoose         Answer: (D)
15.Most of the endangered species are the victims of
(A) Habitat destruction
(B) Over-hunting
(C) Acid rain
(D) Competition with introduced species            Answer: (A)
16. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is a disease caused by prions in a _______.
(A) cow
(B) sheep
(C) man
(D) potato Answer: (A)
17. Blood stains are found at the site of a murder. lf DNA profiling technique is to be used for identifying the criminal, which of the following is ideal for use?
(A) Erythrocytes
(B) Leucocytes
(C) Platelets
(D) Serum Answer: (B)
18. BT brinjal is an example of transgenic crops. In this, BT refers to
(A) Bacillus tuberculosis
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Betacarotene
(D) Bacillus thuringiensis Answer: (D)
19. BY the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that ________.
(A) The strongest of all species survives
(B) The most intelligent of the species survives
(C) The cleverest of the species survives
(D) The most adaptable of the species to changes survives Answer: (D)
20. Casparian strips are present in the ________ of the root.
(A) epiblema
(B) cortex
(C) perycycle
(D) endodermis Answer: (D)

List of Masculine and Feminine


1. The feminine is usually distinguished from the masculine by the ending -ess :
Masculine.Feminine.Masculine.Feminine. 
abbot
actor
adulterer
master
author
mayor
duke
monitor
baron
marquis
murderer
enchanter
prophet
god
emperor
founder
governor
seamster
host
elector
sorcerer
tiger
traitor
viscount
abbess
actress
adulteress
mistress
authoress (or author)
mayoress
duchess1
monitress
baroness
marchioness2
murderess
enchantress
prophetess
goddess
empress
foundress
governess
sempstress3
hostess
electress
sorceress
tigress
traitress
viscountess  
lion
benefactor
negro
canon
patron
count
peer
dauphin
poet
deacon
proprietor
preceptor
protector
prior
giant
heir
shepherd
hunter
priest
songster
instructor
inventor
Jew  
lioness
benefactress
negress
canoness
patroness
countess
peeress
dauphiness
poetess (or poet)
deaconess
proprietress (-trix)
preceptress
protectress
prioress
giantess
heiress
shepherdess
huntress
priestess
songstress3
instructress
inventress
Jewess

List of Synonymy and Antonyms1


poverty wealth
powerful feeble, weak
polite impolite, rude
private public
prudent imprudent
pretty unsightly, ugly
pure          impure
qualified unqualified
rapid     slow
regularly    irregularly
rich                poor
right wrong,     left
rigid pliable,     soft
rough         smooth
satisfactory  unsatisfactory
security       insecurity
scatter         collect
serious         trivial
second-hand new
sense          nonsense

junior senior
justice        injustice
king                 subject
knowledge ignorance
laugh             cry
lawful unlawful
lazy          industrious, energetic
land         sea
landlord tenant
large little, small
last          first
lawyer client
lecturer student
lender borrower
lengthen shorten
left         right
less         more
light       dark, heavy
like       dislike, unlike
likely   unlikely
leader follower
little        large, much, big
lofty         lowly
long       short
loud        soft
loss         find, win
low         high
loyal        disloyal
mad         sane
magnetize demagnetize
master servant
mature immature
maximum minimum
me         you
merry mirthless, sad
minority majority
miser spendthrift
misunderstand understand
narrow wide
near         far, distant
neat        untidy
new       old
night        day
noisy        quiet
North South
obedient disobedient
odd          even
offer  refuse
open  shut
optimist pessimist
out         in
parent child
past          present
patient impatient
peace war
permanent   temporary
please  displease
plentiful scarce
poetry prose
possible impossible
poverty wealth
powerful feeble, weak
polite impolite, rude
private public
prudent imprudent
pretty unsightly, ugly
pure          impure
qualified   unqualified
rapid slow
regularly      irregularly
rich              poor
right wrong,   left
rigid pliable,  soft
rough       smooth
satisfactory     unsatisfactory
security        insecurity
scatter        collect
serious         trivial
second-hand new
sense          nonsense
shopkeeper customer
singular         plural
simple complicated
slim         thick, stout
solid          liquid
sober drunk
speaker listener
sour         sweet
sorrow joy
sow         reap
stand lie
straight         crooked
strong weak
success failure
sunny cloudy
take         give
tall         short
tame        wild
teacher pupil
thick         thin
tight        slack, loose
top         bottom
transparent opaque
truth         untruth, lie
up         down
vacant occupied
valuable         valueless
victory defeat
virtue vice
visible invisible
voluntary        compulsory
vowel consonant
wax         wane
wisdom folly
within without