Showing posts with label Physics Quiz. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Physics Quiz. Show all posts

Monday, April 29, 2013

What process produces most of the energy that is radiated by the Sun?


Q-1: What process produces most of the energy that is radiated by the Sun?
1) gravitational contraction
2) chemical combustion
3) nuclear fusion
4) nuclear fission
ANSWER: 3 -- NUCLEAR FUSION
Q-2: What is the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of a pool 6 meters deep?
1) 60,000 Newtons per meter squared
2) 6,000 Newtons per meter squared
3) 600 Newtons per meter squared
4) 60 Newtons per meter squared
ANSWER: 1 -- 60,000 NEWTONS PER METER SQUARED
Q-3: What is a typical wavelength of an AM radio wave?
1) 3000 meters
2) 300 meters
3) 30 meters
4) 3 meters
ANSWER: 2 -- 300 METERS
Q-4:A ball is thrown upwards with an initial velocity of 5 meters per second. How many seconds will it take to reach maximum height?
1) 0.5 seconds
2) 1 second
3) 1.5 seconds
4) 2 seconds
ANSWER: 1-- 0.5 SECONDS
Q-5:Albert Einstein received the Nobel prize in physics for his work on: w) gravitation
1) relativity
2) photoelectric effect
3) Brownian motion
ANSWER: 3 -- PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT
Q-6:A typical microwave oven produces microwave radiation with a wavelength of:
1) 3 meters
2) 3 x 10-2 meters (read: 3 times 10 to the minus 2 meters)
3) 3 x 10 -6 meters (read: 3 times 10 to the minus 6 meters)
4) 3 x 10-9 meters (read: 3 times 10 to the minus 9 meters)
ANSWER: 2 -- 3 x 10-2 METERS
Q-7:An ELECTRON moving horizontally along the +x axis enters a region of space with a horizontal uniform magnetic field pointing in the +y direction. The electron will be deflected:
1) -y direction
2) +y direction
3) -z direction
4) +z direction
ANSWER: 3 -- -Z DIRECTION
Q-8:: Entropy is a measure of:
1) magnetization
2) disorder
3) temperature
4) heat
ANSWER: 2 -- DISORDER

Saturday, April 27, 2013

What process produces most of the energy that is radiated by the Sun?


Q-1: What process produces most of the energy that is radiated by the Sun?
1) gravitational contraction
2) chemical combustion
3) nuclear fusion
4) nuclear fission
ANSWER: 3 -- NUCLEAR FUSION
Q-2: What is the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of a pool 6 meters deep?
1) 60,000 Newtons per meter squared
2) 6,000 Newtons per meter squared
3) 600 Newtons per meter squared
4) 60 Newtons per meter squared
ANSWER: 1 -- 60,000 NEWTONS PER METER SQUARED
Q-3:  What is a typical wavelength of an AM radio wave?
1) 3000 meters
2) 300 meters
3) 30 meters
4) 3 meters
ANSWER: 2 -- 300 METERS
Q-4: A ball is thrown upwards with an initial velocity of 5 meters per second. How many seconds will it take to reach maximum height?
1) 0.5 seconds
2) 1 second
3) 1.5 seconds
4) 2 seconds
ANSWER: 1 -- 0.5 SECONDS
Q-5: Albert Einstein received the Nobel prize in physics for his work on:
1) gravitation
2) relativity
3) photoelectric effect
4) Brownian motion
ANSWER: 3 -- PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT
Q-6:  A typical microwave oven produces microwave radiation with a wavelength of:
1) 3 meters
2) 3 x 10-2 meters (read: 3 times 10 to the minus 2 meters)
3) 3 x 10 -6 meters (read: 3 times 10 to the minus 6 meters)
4) 3 x 10-9 meters (read: 3 times 10 to the minus 9 meters)
ANSWER: 2 -- 3 x 10-2 METERS
Q-7: An ELECTRON moving horizontally along the +x axis enters a region of space with a horizontal uniform magnetic field pointing in the +y direction. The electron will be deflected:
1) -y direction
2) +y direction
3) -z direction
4) +z direction
ANSWER: 3 -- -Z DIRECTION
Q-8:  Entropy is a measure of:
1) magnetization
2) disorder
3) temperature
4) heat
ANSWER: 2 -- DISORDER

A characteristic of the noble gases is that they all have filled outer electron shells


Q-1: A characteristic of the noble gases is that they all:
1) have eight electrons in the outer shell
2) have low stability
3) form many compounds
4) have filled outer electron shells
ANSWER: 4 -- HAVE FILLED OUTER ELECTRON SHELLS
Q-2: A reduction reaction always involves the:
1) loss of electrons
2) gain of electrons
3) addition of oxygen
4) removal of oxygen
ANSWER: 2 -- GAIN OF ELECTRONS
Q-3: The photoelectric effect is a demonstration of:
1) the wave nature of light
2) the particle nature of light
3) Compton scattering
4) the continuous spectrum of radiation
ANSWER: 2 -- THE PARTICLE NATURE OF LIGHT
Q-4: When a solid material is heated, it always:
1) emits a discrete radiation spectrum
2) glows red
3) emits a continuous radiation spectrum
4) emits only visible radiation
ANSWER: 3 -- EMITS A CONTINUOUS RADIATION SPECTRUM
Q-5: An electron is classified as a:
1) boson
2) nucleon
3) fermion
4) meson
ANSWER: 3 -- FERMION
Q-6: Laser radiation is:
1) monochromatic
2) directed in a narrow beam
3) produced with large power densities
4) all of the above
ANSWER:4 -- ALL OF THE ABOVE
Q-7: Which of the following implies the greatest precision?
1) 1.02 x 105
2) 102 x 103
3) 0.102 x 106
4) 1.020 x 105
ANSWER: 4 -- 1.020 x 105
Q-8: Which of the following is NOT one of the fundamental quantities in physics?
1) time
2) length
3) weight
3) mass
ANSWER: 3 -- WEIGHT
Q-9:A sphere which has half the radius but twice the density of another sphere has:
1) more mass
2) less mass
3) the same mass
4) the same weight
ANSWER: 3 -- LESS MASS

What name is given to the visible light emitted when charged particles pass through a transparent medium with a velocity exceeding the velocity of light in the medium?


Q-1: What name is given to the visible light emitted when charged particles pass through a transparent medium with a velocity exceeding the velocity of light in the medium?
ANSWER: CERENKOV RADIATION
Q-2:What element was first discovered in the spectrum of the sun before it was discovered on earth?
ANSWER: HELIUM
Q-3:A gluon is the carrier of which force of nature?
ANSWER: STRONG FORCE or STRONG NUCLEAR FORCE.
Q-4: Close inspection of a failed metal part reveals artifacts on the fracture surface commonly referred to as "striations" or "beach marks". This indicates the component failed as a result of:
1) Sudden overloading
2) Cyclical loading
3) Stress corrosion cracking
4) None of the above
ANSWER: 2 -- CYCLICAL LOADING
Q-5: How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of an element with an atomic weight of 119 and an atomic number of 50?
ANSWER: 69
Q-6: Zero degrees Kelvin is equal to what temperature on the Celsius scale?
ANSWER: - 273 DEGREES CELSIUS or -273.15 DEGREES CELSIUS
Q-7:Dirac theoretically predicted the existence of the positron. Who experimentally identified positrons in 1932 in cloud chamber pictures of cosmic ray particle tracks?
ANSWER: (C. D.) ANDERSON
Q-8:These two chemical elements, named after two world-renowned scientists, were first formed in a thermonuclear explosion which occurred in the South Pacific in 1952. The atomic numbers of these elements are 99 and 100. Their chemical symbols are Es and Fm. Name these elements.
ANSWER: EINSTEINIUM AND FERMIUM
Q-9: The dark lines constituting the absorption spectrum exhibited by sunlight are frequently called:
1) Fresnel lines
2) Fraunhofer lines
3) Fermi lines
4) Franklin lines
ANSWER: 2 -- FRAUNHOFER LINES
Q-10: The temperature of a gas measures the:
1) number of calories of heat present
2) average kinetic energy of the particles in the gas
3) exact number of particles in the gas
4) potential energy of the gas
ANSWER: 2 -- AVERAGE KINETIC ENERGY OF THE PARTICLES IN THE GAS
Q-11: If two atoms exert equal attractions for electrons, they can form:
1) a nonpolar covalent bond
2) an ionic bond
3) a polar covalent bond
4) no bond
ANSWER: 1 -- A NONPOLAR COVALENT BOND
Q-12: An element has the following numbers of electrons in its shells: 2-8-8-2. Which of the following is true? The element:
1) is a nonmetal
2) forms an ion with a charge of +2
3) can accept two electrons
4) forms a negative ion
ANSWER: 2 -- FORMS AN ION WITH A CHARGE OF +2

A piano tuner notices a standing Lissajous (pron: Liss-a-jew) curve on his oscilloscope. The tone being projected is


Q-1: A piano tuner notices a standing Lissajous (pron: Liss-a-jew) curve on his oscilloscope. The tone being projected is:
1) out of harmony
2) sharp
3) resonating
4) flat
ANSWER: 3 -- RESONATING
Q-2: Photons and gravitons are names associated with a category of particles called:
1) mesons
2) bosons
3) leptons
4) baryons
ANSWER: 2 --BOSONS
Q-3:An electron is moved through a potential difference of 1 volt. How much energy in joules was used to move the electron?
ANSWER: 1.6 x 10-19 JOULES
Q-4: Who said this about alpha particles and the reflection of these particles from thin foils? "It was about as credible as if you fired a 15-inch shell at a piece of tissue paper and it came back at you."
ANSWER: RUTHERFORD
Q-5:A string of length L is fixed between two points. If a standing wave of 5 nodes is produced, what is the relationship between the string's length, L, and its wavelength?
ANSWER: WAVELENGTH = 1/2 L
Q-6: A freight car weighing 20 tons and moving at a speed of 7 miles per hour on a horizontal track collides and couples with a stationary car that weighs 15 tons. Neglecting friction, determine the velocity of the coupled cars.
ANSWER: 4 MILES PER HOUR
Q-7: The Grand Unified Theory of the forces of nature combines three of the four forces. Which force is NOT included?
1) gravitational
2) electromagnetic
3) weak nuclear
4) strong nuclear
ANSWER: 1 -- GRAVITATIONAL
Q-8: A person who is nearsighted will need what type of lenses in his glasses in order to see correctly?
ANSWER: DIVERGING or CONCAVE LENSES
Q-9: If a car is traveling at 20 meters per second in a straight line, how many seconds will it take the car to stop if it decelerates at 5 meters per second squared?
ANSWER: 4 SECONDS
Q-10:  Which of the following men was involved with the first controlled nuclear reaction?
1) Linus Pauling
2) Nelson Sartoris
3) Edward Teller
4) Enrico Fermi
ANSWER: 4 -- ENRICO FERMI
Q-11:  If the half-life of a radioisotope is 2 days, after how many days is the quantity reduced to 12.5% of its original amount?
1) 4 days
2) 6 days
3) 8 days
4) 10 days
ANSWER: 2 -- 6 DAYS
Q-12: What term which begins with the letter "A" is used to describe the reduction in intensity of radiation as it passes through matter?
ANSWER: ATTENUATION

For a point charge to feel a net force in a homogeneous magnetic field, which one of the following statements is true? The charge must


Q-1: For a point charge to feel a net force in a homogeneous magnetic field, which one of the following statements is true? The charge must:
1) move parallel to the magnetic lines of flux
2) have a component of its motion perpendicular to the lines of flux
3) be stationary
4) be a positive charge
ANSWER: 2 -- HAVE A COMPONENT OF ITS MOTION PERPENDICULAR TO
THE LINES OF FLUX
Q-2:  According to Gauss' Law, the magnitude of the electric field is zero everywhere inside a conductor if:
1) electrostatic equilibrium is achieved
2) the surface is a metal
3) the conductor is moving
4) the conductor is a non-Gaussian surface
ANSWER: 1 -- ELECTROSTATIC EQUILIBRIUM IS ACHIEVED
Q-3:  An air dielectric is replaced with a glass dielectric inside a capacitor of fixed dimensions. Relatively speaking, what will happen to the quantity of charge the capacitor can hold after the glass is inserted?
ANSWER: IT IS INCREASED WITH THE GLASS DIELECTRIC.
Q-4:  In a simple dc circuit, voltage equals resistance multiplied by current. This is also considered true in an AC circuit if the what values of the current and voltage are used.
ANSWER: ROOT MEAN SQUARE (RMS) VALUES
Q-5: Gauss' law of electricity, Gauss' law of magnetism, Faraday's law of induction, and Amperes' law form the basic equations of electromagnetism. This combination is collectively known as:
1) Coulomb's equations
2) Volta's equations
3) Fermi's equations
4) Maxwell's equations
ANSWER: 4 -- MAXWELL'S EQUATIONS
Q-6: The index of refraction can be considered:
1) a ratio of material thickness between substances
2) a ratio of velocities of light in different materials
3) a ratio of mass between materials
4) to have the units of photons
ANSWER: 2 -- A RATIO OF VELOCITIES OF LIGHT OF DIFFERENT MATERIALS
Q-7: In an ideal case, if a point source of light is placed at the focal point in front of a concave reflector, where will the image form?
ANSWER: WILL NOT FORM or FORMS AT INFINITY
Q-8: You are sitting in a frictionless barber chair. The barber decides to have some fun with you, so he spins the chair. As you spin, you find that you can slow down by extending your arms and legs. You have:
1) decreased your angular momentum
2) increased your angular momentum
3) increased your moment of inertia
4) changed the direction of the momentum vector
ANSWER: 3 --INCREASED YOUR MOMENT OF INERTIA
Q-9: A 10 kg mass initially sitting on the ground is placed on a ledge 3 meters above ground level. What is the increase in potential energy of the mass?
ANSWER: 294 JOULES (accept 300 JOULES, ASSUMES g=10m/sec2)
Q-10: A person sees a lightning bolt in the distance and tries to guess the distance to the bolt based on the time between the flash and the thunder. What general time span should she use?
1) 1 second equals 1 mile
2) 5 seconds equal 1 mile
3) 10 seconds equal 1 mile
4) 20 seconds equal 1 mile
ANSWER: 2 -- 5 SECONDS EQUAL 1 MILE

The minimum number of forces with unequal magnitudes whose vector sum can equal zero is:


Q-1: The minimum number of forces with unequal magnitudes whose vector sum can equal zero is:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
ANSWER: 3 -- 3
Q-2:  A hiker stands at the bottom of steep hill. The hiker may follow a straight line path to the top of the hill, a distance of 300 feet, or she may follow a zig-zag path to the top of the hill and walk a distance of 600 feet. The work done by the force of gravity along the zig-zag path is how many times the work going along the straight path? Is it:
1) equal
2) twice
3) 4 times
4) 8 times?
ANSWER: 1 -- EQUAL
Q-3: A pendulum is displaced through an arc of 1o. When the pendulum is released, it takes the pendulum 1 second to swing through the 1o arc. How long would it take the pendulum to swing through a 2o arc? Is it:
1 1/2 second
2) 1 second
3) 2 seconds
4) 4 seconds
ANSWER: 2 -- 1 SECOND
Q-4: A perfectly spherical bubble of air is suspended in a tank of water. A beam of light consisting of parallel rays passes through the bubble. As the light emerges from the opposite side of the bubble the light rays:
1) diverge
2) converge
3) are unaffected
ANSWER: 1 -- DIVERGE
Q-5:  An explorer is riding his camel in the desert. Up ahead he sees what appears to be a pool of water. He can tell if it is a real pool of water or a mirage by putting on his polarized sun glasses because:
1) the mirage is polarized and reflections from the water are not
2) reflections from water are polarized while the mirage is not
3) neither are polarized so one will not be able to discern a difference
4) both are polarized so one will not be able to discern a difference
ANSWER: 2 -- REFLECTIONS FROM WATER ARE POLARIZED WHILE THE
MIRAGE S NOT
Q-6:  What name is given to the class of subatomic particles which include the proton, the neutron, and several heavier particles, such as the lambda, the sigma and the omega.
ANSWER: BARYONS
Q-7:  What is the SI unit for pressure?
1) Torr
2) pounds per square inch
3) Pascal
4) Kelvin
ANSWER: 3 -- PASCAL
Q-8:  A virtual image always appears:
1) larger than object
2) inverted
3) erect
4) same size as object
ANSWER: 3 -- ERECT
Q-9:  How many quarks make up a proton?
ANSWER: 3

The coating on the plastic tape you use in your cassette players is


Q-1;The coating on the plastic tape you use in your cassette players is
1) diamagnetic
2) paramagnetic
3) ferromagnetic
4) a permanent magnet
ANSWER: 3 -- FERROMAGNETIC
Q-2;Which color light has the highest frequency?
1) green
2) violet
3) red
4) yellow
ANSWER: 2 -- VIOLET
Q-3; Your Minolta camera has a 50 millimeter lens. The 50 millimeters is the lens'
1) diameter
2) focal length
3) magnification
4) aperture
ANSWER: 2 -- FOCAL LENGTH
Q-4;You want to put up a mirror at a blind corner in a building. Which of the following will give you the largest field of view? Is it a:
1) convex mirror
2) concave mirror
3) cylindrical mirror
4) plane mirror
ANSWER: 1 -- CONVEX MIRROR
Q-5; Dr. Leon Lederman and two other physicists won the Nobel prize for discovering an elementary particle. That particle is the:
1) positron
2) meson
3) muon
4) neutrino
ANSWER: 4-- NEUTRINO
Q-6;Neutrinos are a subset of which of the following categories?
1) photons
2) leptons
3) mesons
4) baryons
ANSWER: 2 -- LEPTONS
Q-7; A flywheel rotating at 5 revolutions per second is brought to rest by a constant torque in 10 seconds. How many revolutions does the flywheel make while coming to a stop?
1) 25
2) 50
3) 75
4) 100
ANSWER: 1 -- 25
Q-8;A wooden board 2 meters long, 30 centimeters wide and 4 centimeters thick floats in water with 1 centimeter of its thickness above the surface. The mass of the board is:
1) 1.8 kilograms
2) 18 kilograms
3) 24 kilograms
4) 176 kilograms
ANSWER: 2 -- 18 KILOGRAMS

A 45 kilogram bicyclist on a 5 kilogram bicycle rides down a 50 meter high hill with her brakes partially on. Her speed at the bottom of the hill is 10 meters per second. How many kilojoules of heat were dissipated by the cyclist's brakes?


Q-1: A 45 kilogram bicyclist on a 5 kilogram bicycle rides down a 50 meter high hill with her brakes partially on. Her speed at the bottom of the hill is 10 meters per second. How many kilojoules of heat were dissipated by the cyclist's brakes?
ANSWER: 22.5 KILOJOULES or 22.0 KILOJOULES (based on 9.8 m/s2)
Q-2: A two-stage rocket attains a velocity of 3,000 meters per second when it drops the first stage and ignites the second. It consumes 1 kilogram of fuel per second and its exhaust speed is 2,000 meters per second. What is the thrust on the spacecraft?
1) 2,000 Newtons
2) 3,000 Newtons
3) 2,000 Newton-seconds
4) 3,000 Newton-seconds
ANSWER: 1 -- 2,000 NEWTONS
Q-3: A round viewing window with a 20 centimeter diameter is installed in a tank at the Shedd Aquarium. It is 5 meters below the water surface. The force on the window is approximately:
1) 1,500 Newtons
2) 10,000 Newtons
3) 25,000 Newtons
4) 50,000 Newtons
ANSWER: 1 -- 1,500 NEWTONS
Q-4:  The density of lead is 12 grams per cm3. A lead brick has a mass of 1.5 kilograms. Its dimensions are 10 cm by 5 cm by 4 cm. Is it:
1) More than 75% hollow
2) Between 50 and 75% hollow
3) Between 25 and 50% hollow
4) Between 0 and 25% hollow
ANSWER: 3 -- BETWEEN 25 AND 50% HOLLOW
Q-5:  Ice skating is possible and practical because of a unique property of water. Is it because:
1) The coefficient of kinetic friction of steel on frozen water decreases with decreasing Temperature
2) Ice readily sublimes
3) The melting point decreases with increasing pressure
4) Ice is a good thermal insulator
ANSWER: 3 -- THE MELTING POINT DECREASES WITH INCREASING PRESSURE
Q-6: 1 kilogram of boiling water is poured into an empty thermos whose mass is 1 kilogram and whose temperature is 25o Celsius. No heat is lost from the thermos. The specific heats of water and the thermos are 1 and 0.5 kilocalories per kilogram degree Celsius, respectively. Their final temperature is:
1) 50o Celsius
2) 65o Celsius
3) 75o Celsius
4) 90o Celsius (Read: "degrees Celsius")
ANSWER: 3 -- 75o CELSIUS
Q-7: An aluminum rod at a temperature of 100o Celsius radiates energy at a rate of 10 watts. If its temperature is increased to 200o Celsius, at approximately what rate will it radiate energy?
1) 15 watts
2) 20 watts
3) 26 watts
4) 80 watts
ANSWER: 3 -- 26 WATTS

The binding energy of a nucleus is defined as one of the following.Is this definition


Q-1: The binding energy of a nucleus is defined as one of the following.Is this definition:
1) the energy equivalent to its mass
2) the mass difference between its neutrons and protons
3) the energy needed to remove a neutron from the nucleus
4) the difference between the mass of the nucleus and the sum of the masses of its protons
and neutrons
ANSWER: 4 -- THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE MASS OF THE NUCLEUS
AND THE UM
Q-2: In the equation of a nuclear reaction, all but one of the following quantities are equal to each other on both sides of the equation. Which quantity is NOT conserved:
1) the net electric charge
2) the total mass-energy
3) the number of protons
4) the number of nucleons
ANSWER: 3 -- THE NUMBER OF PROTONS
Q-3: Which of the following terms refer to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance through one degree?
1) Heat of fusion
2) Liquification heat
3) Internal heat
4) Specific heat
ANSWER: 4 -- SPECIFIC HEAT
Q-4: There is evidence that quarks come in how many flavors? Is it:
1) 1
2) 3
3) 5
4) 7
ANSWER: 3 -- 5
Q-5: To develop the correct mathematical description of the distribution of radiated energy of a blackbody with respect to wavelength for a given temperature, Planck found it necessary to assume that the molecular oscillators of the blackbody emitted and absorbed:
1) no radiant energy
2) radiant energy in discrete units or quanta
3) radiant energy in a continuous form
4) none of the above.
ANSWER: X -- RADIANT ENERGY IN DISCRETE UNITS OR QUANTA
Q-6:  How many torr are there in one atmosphere?
ANSWER: 760
Q-7:  A stone weighing 10 Newtons is sitting on the side of a hill that is at a 30o angle with the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the component of the stone's weight parallel to the side of the hill.
ANSWER: 5 NEWTONS
Q-8:  A curve in the road has a radius of 500 meters, and is banked at an angle of O (read: "theta") for a traffic speed of 90 kilometers per hour, or 25 meters per second. Is O:
1) Less than 2o
2) Between 2o and 5o
3) Between 5o and 10o
4) Greater than 10o The tangent of 2o is 0.035, the tangent of 5o is 0.09 and the tangent of 10o is 0.18.
ANSWER: Y -- BETWEEN 5o AND 10o
Q-9: Laura weighs 50 Newtons and pushes against a stationary brick wall that weighs 1,000 Newtons. Her arm is two-thirds of a meter long. According to the laws of physics, how much work does she do?
ANSWER: NONE or ZERO

Friday, April 26, 2013

An electron and a proton are moving at the same speed in circular paths in the same uniform magnetic field. The radius of the path of the proton is one of the following. Is this radius


Q-1: An electron and a proton are moving at the same speed in circular paths in the same uniform magnetic field. The radius of the path of the proton is one of the following. Is this radius:
1) the same as that of the electron
2) about 2000 times larger than that of the electron
3) a little larger than that of the electron
4) smaller than that of the electron
ANSWER: 2 -- ABOUT 2000 TIMES LARGER THAN THAT OF THE ELECTRON
Q-2: In the mass spectrograph, two positively charged ions having the same velocity pass through a slit and enter a uniform magnetic field at right angles to their initial velocities. The ions will NOT be separated if:
1) they have the same masses but different charges
2) they have the same charges but different masses
3) the products of their charges and their masses are equal
4) the ratios of their charges to their masses are equal
ANSWER: 4 -- THE RATIOS OF THEIR CHARGES TO THEIR MASSES ARE
EQUAL
Q-3:  A capacitor and a coil are connected in series. The capacitor is charged and allowed to discharge through the coil. The current that will then flow through the capacitor-coil combination will do one of the following things. Will it:
1) flow in one direction, beginning at a maximum and decreasing rapidly to zero
2) oscillate indefinitely
3) oscillate but diminish steadily to zero
4) oscillate at high frequency at first but then at slower frequency
ANSWER: 3 -- OSCILLATE BUT DIMINISH STEADILY TO ZERO
Q-4: The energy associated with one photon of a light beam is proportional to one of the following. Is it proportional to:
1) the intensity of the light source from which it came
2) the number of photons in the beam
3) the frequency of the photon
4) the speed of the photon
ANSWER: 3 -- THE FREQUENCY OF THE PHOTON
Q-5:  When a certain beam of light falls upon a metal surface, it ejects photoelectrons from it. The number of photoelectrons ejected per second by the beam of light depends upon one of the following. Is it proportional to:
1) the threshold frequency of the metal
2) the work function of the metal
3) the frequency of the beam
4) the intensity of the beam
ANSWER: 4 -- THE INTENSITY OF THE BEAM
Q-6:  In Rutherford's experiment involving the deflection of alpha particles by atomic nuclei, the fact that some of the alpha particles bombarding the thin gold foil were back-scattered, led to one of the following conclusions. It was concluded that:
1) the charge of an electron is negative
2) the nucleus of a gold atom carries all its charge
3) most of the mass of a gold atom is in its nucleus
4) the nucleus of a gold atom occupies nearly the entire space of the atom
ANSWER: 3 -- MOST OF THE MASS OF A GOLD ATOM IS IN ITS NUCLEUS
Q-7:  Standing waves are formed when two sets of waves of equal amplitude and frequency
1) are in phase
2) are in opposite phase
3) move through each other in opposite directions
4) are reflected from the same surface
ANSWER: 3 -- MOVE THROUGH EACH OTHER IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS
Q-6: The common-emitter transistor circuit can amplify a small current signal because a small change in the signal current produces one of the following. Does the change in signal produce a large change in the:
1) emitter-base voltage
2) base current
3) collector current
4) collector voltage
ANSWER: 3 -- COLLECTOR CURRENT

By which one of the following can a real image be produced?


Q-1: By which one of the following can a real image be produced? Can it be produced by a:
1) concave mirror
2) plane mirror
3) diverging lens
4) convex mirror
ANSWER: 1 -- CONCAVE MIRROR
Q-2: A metal ball on an insulated stand is touched by a positively charged glass rod. What happens to the metal ball? Does it
1) gain protons and lose electrons
2) gain protons
3) gain more protons than electrons
4 lose electrons
ANSWER: 4 -- LOSE ELECTRONS
Q-3:A zinc plate is attached to the knob of a negatively charged electroscope. What will happen to the leaves of the electroscope when ultraviolet light is shown on the zinc plate. Will the leaves:
1) collapse at once
2) gradually come together
3) gradually spread further apart
4) remain unaffected
ANSWER: 2 -- GRADUALLY COME TOGETHER
Q-4: A high voltage applied to a gas discharge tube containing neon gas at very low pressure causes a current to flow through the tube. Which one of the following are the particles that flow towards the cathode? Are they
1) electrons
2) protons
3) negatively charged neon ions
4) positively charged neon ions
ANSWER: 4 -- POSITIVELY CHARGED NEON IONS
Q-5:  Which of the following phrases completes the following statement: The strength of the electric field between two oppositely charged parallel plates is:
1) a maximum midway between the plates
2) a maximum near the positively charged plate
3) constant between the plates except near the edges
4) zero midway between the plates
ANSWER: 3 -- CONSTANT BETWEEN THE PLATES EXCEPT NEAR THE
EDGES
Q-6: Which one of the following is the advantage of connecting two dry cells in parallel instead of in series? Is it because the parallel arrangement:
1) gives twice the EMF of one dry cell
2) has no internal resistance
3) generates heat in an external circuit half as fast as would a single cell
4) has half the internal resistance of a single cell
ANSWER: 4 -- HAS HALF THE INTERNAL RESISTANCE OF A SINGLE CELL
Q-7:  Magnetic lines of force have all but one of the following characteristics. The one that they DO NOT have is:
1) they go from the South-pole to the North-pole of a magnet outside of the magnet
2) they are most concentrated at the poles of a magnet
3) they pass through copper
4) they never cross one another
ANSWER: W -- THEY GO FROM THE SOUTH-POLE TO THE NORTH-POLE OF THE M AGNET
Q-8:  Which one of the following is the way in which a galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter? Is it by connecting:
1) a high resistance coil in parallel with its moveable coil
2) a low resistance coil in parallel with its moveable coil
3) a high resistance coil in series with its moveable coil
4) a low resistance coil in series with its moveable coil
ANSWER: 3 -- A HIGH RESISTANCE COIL IN SERIES WITH ITS MOVEABLE COIL

It takes 500 watts to operate a machine whose power output is 480 watts. Which of the following is the efficiency of the machine


Q-1: It takes 500 watts to operate a machine whose power output is 480 watts. Which of the following is the efficiency of the machine? Is it
1) 20%
2) 48%
3) 96%
4) 98%
ANSWER: 3 -- 96%
Q-2: Which of the following statements is TRUE about an ELASTIC collision between two particles? Is it true that:
1) neither particle loses any of its kinetic energy
2) neither particle loses any of its momentum
3) the velocity gained by one particle is equal to that lost by the other
4) the total kinetic energy before and after the collision remains constant
ANSWER: 4 -- THE TOTAL KINETIC ENERGY BEFORE AND AFTER THE
COLLISION RE
Q-3:  Ten calories of heat are added to 2 grams of water. The temperature of the water rises to a total of how many degrees? Is it:
1) 2 degrees Celsius
2) 5 degrees Celsius
3) 10 degrees Celsius
4) 20 degrees Celsius
ANSWER: 3 -- 5 DEGREES CELSIUS
Q-4:  If water is warmed from 0 degrees Celsius to 6 degrees Celsius,which of the following things happen. Will the water:
1) expand steadily
2) contract steadily
3) expand at first and then contract
4) contract first then expand
ANSWER: 4 -- CONTRACT FIRST THEN EXPAND
Q-5: A gas at 0 degrees C and at normal atmospheric pressure has a volume of 273 cubic centimeters. If it is held at constant pressure until its volume is doubled, its temperature will be which one of the following? Will it be
1) 2 degrees Celsius
2) 200 degrees Celsius
3) 273 degrees Celsius
4) 546 degrees Celsius
ANSWER: 3 -- 273 DEGREES CELSIUS
Q-6:  Infrared rays are absorbed best by which one of the following. Is it:
1) bodies of air
2) white bodies with rough surfaces
3) mirrors
4) black bodies with rough surfaces
ANSWER: 4 -- BLACK BODIES WITH ROUGH SURFACES
Q-7: Energy stored in a body as thermal or internal energy consists of one of the following. Does it consist of:
1) heat in the form of radiant energy
2) molecular kinetic energy only
3) molecular potential energy only
4) both kinetic and potential energy
ANSWER: 4 -- BOTH KINETIC AND POTENTIAL ENERGY
Q-8:  When white light passes through a red plate of glass and then through a green plate of glass which one of the following things occur?
1) the light is totally absorbed
2) the light that emerges is a combination of red and green
3) the light that emerges lacks only its red and green components
4) the light that emerges is green
ANSWER: 1 -- THE LIGHT IS TOTALLY ABSORBED

The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.6 meters per second squared. If a pendulum is whose length is 6.4 meters is placed on the moon, its period will be 12.56 SECONDS


Q-1: The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.6 meters per second squared. If a pendulum is whose length is 6.4 meters is placed on the moon, its period will be:
1) 1.57 seconds
2) 3.14 seconds
3) 12.56 seconds
4) 25.12 seconds
ANSWER: 3 -- 12.56 SECONDS
Q-2: Of the following, the type of wave that CANNOT be polarized is
1) electromagnetic
2) light
3) sound
4) radio
ANSWER: 3 -- SOUND
Q-3: Pressure is equal to:
1) Area divided by force
2) force divided by area
3) area times force
4) area minus force
ANSWER: 2 -- FORCE DIVIDED BY AREA
Q-4: The radiator of a room contains 10 kilogram of water. If the water gives off 50,000 calories of heat to the room, the drop in temperature of the water is:
1) 1 degree Celsius
2) 2 degrees Celsius
3) 5 degrees Celsius
4) 10 degrees Celsius
ANSWER: 3 -- 5 DEGREES CELSIUS
Q-5: In N-type semiconductors the majority of the carriers are:
1) holes
2) electrons
3) protons
4) neutrons
ANSWER: 3 -- ELECTRONS
Q-6: As a pendulum swings from its highest to its lowest point, it has the SMALLEST acceleration when it is:
1) at its lowest point
2) at its highest point
3) at a point 1/3 the distance from the top of its swing
4) at a point 1/2 the distance from the top of its swing.
ANSWER: 1 -- AT ITS LOWEST POINT
Q-7:Two cars collide head-on. They stop at the point of collision. Both cars must have one of the following. Do they have
1) equal masses
2) equal but opposite velocities before the collision
3) equal but opposite momenta before the collision
ANSWER: 3 -- EQUAL BUT OPPOSITE MOMENTA BEFORE THE COLLISION
Q-8: When the speed of a train moving on a circular track is doubled, the centripetal force acting on the train does one of the following. Does the force:
1) remain the same
2) increase by a factor of 2
3) increase by a factor of 4
4) increase by a factor of 8
ANSWER: 3 -- INCREASE BY A FACTOR OF 4

Light bends around sharp corners as a result of DIFFRACTION


Q-1: Light bends around sharp corners as a result of
1) refraction
2) reflection
3) diffraction
4) dispersion
ANSWER: 3 -- DIFFRACTION
Q-1:  A light ray traveling from glass into air strikes the glass-air surface at an angle 50 degrees to the normal. If the critical angle for the glass-air combination is 42 degrees, the percentage of light reflected from the surface is
1) 6
2) 25
3) 38
4) 100
ANSWER: 4 -- 100
Q-3: In the Millikan oil-drop experiment the UPWARD force on the drop is due to the:
1) gravitational and electric fields
2) gravitational field and the charge on the drop
3) electric field and the size of the drop
4) electric field and the charge on the drop
ANSWER: 4 -- ELECTRIC FIELD AND THE CHARGE ON THE DROP
Q-4:  In changing from an energy state of -1.51 electron-volts to -3.40 electron-volts, an atom emits a photon whose energy is:
1) 1.51 electron-volts
2) 1.89 electron-volts
3) 3.40 electron-volts
4) 4.91 electron-volts
ANSWER: 3 -- 1.89 ELECTRON-VOLTS
Q-5:  In an elastic collision, the RELATIVE velocities of separation of the two bodies after impact compared with the relative velocity of approach before impact is:
1) always greater
2) always smaller
3) always the same
4) first greater, then smaller
ANSWER: 3 -- ALWAYS THE SAME
Q-6: Two hockey pucks, of unequal mass and connected by a spring of negligible mass, rest on a horizontal frictionless surface. The spring is released, and the pucks move apart. The center of mass of the two pucks does one of the following. Does it:
1) move in a circle
2) move in the direction of the greater mass
3) remain stationary
4) move in the direction of the smaller mass
ANSWER: 3 -- REMAIN STATIONARY
Q-7:  A 500 kilogram car moving at 20 meters per second strikes a stone wall and is brought to a halt in 0.1 second. The average force of the car on the wall during impact is:
1) 10 Newtons
2) 1000 Newtons
3) 10,000 Newtons
4) 100,000 Newtons
ANSWER: 4 -- 100,000 NEWTONS
Q-8:  A bullet is fired with a muzzle velocity of 1000 meters per second from a rifle clamped to a window 4.9 meters above ground level. Neglecting air resistance, the horizontal distance from the rifle at which the bullet will strike the ground is
1) 4.9 meters
2) 500 meters
3) 1000 meters
4) 4900 meters
ANSWER: 3 -- 1000 METERS

Compressional waves are LONGITUDINAL WAVES


Q-1: Compressional waves are
1) transverse waves
2) water waves
3) longitudinal waves
4) light waves
ANSWER: 3 -- LONGITUDINAL WAVES
Q-2: In a charged hollow metal conductor, the charge is
1) on the inside surface only
2) on both the inside and outside surfaces
3) on the outside surface only
4) only between the inside and outside surfaces
ANSWER: 3 -- ON THE OUTSIDE SURFACE ONLY
Q-3:  Two negative point charges are 2 meters apart and repel each other with a force of 2 newtons. When the distance between the charges is doubled, the force between them is
1) one fourth as great
2) one half as great
3) twice as great
4) four times as great
ANSWER: 1 -- ONE FOURTH AS GREAT
Q-4:  The rate at which electrical energy is used is measured in
1) volts
2) amperes
3) joules
4) watts
ANSWER: 4 -- WATTS
Q-5:  For an electromagnetic wave traveling in a vacuum, if the magnitude of the intensity of the E field is zero, the magnitude of the intensity of the B field is:
1) zero
2) a negative maximum
3) a positive maximum
4) the square root of 2 times the positive maximum
ANSWER: 1 -- ZERO
Q-6: The effective capacitance of four, 5-microfarad capacitors connected in series is:
1) 0.20 microfarad
2) 0.5 microfarad
3) 1.0 microfarad
4) 1.25 microfarad
ANSWER: 4 -- 1.25 MICROFARAD
Q-7:  The terminal voltage of a cell supplying energy to a circuit is usually less than its emf because of the cell's
1) size
2) internal resistance
3) mass
4) energy
ANSWER: 3 -- INTERNAL RESISTANCE
Q-8: A light ray traveling in benzene strikes the benzene-air surface at the critical angle. The angle of refraction of the light ray is:
1) 30 degrees
2) 60 degrees
3) 90 degrees
4) 180 degrees
ANSWER: 3 -- 90 DEGREES

Who first showed that full color pictures can be formed from only two single color images


Q-1: Who first showed that full color pictures can be formed from only two single color images?
ANSWER: JAMES H. LAND
Q-2:  Carlos is pulling a 40 kilogram cart with a horizontal force of 100 newtons. The force of friction on the cart is 20 newtons. The acceleration of the cart is:
1) 2 meters per second squared
2 2.5 meters per second squared
3) 20 meters per second squared
4) 200 meters per second squared
ANSWER: 1 -- 2 METERS PER SECOND SQUARED
Q-3:  Multiple Choice: A car with a mass of 1000 kilogram is moving at a speed of 10 meters per second. The kinetic energy of the car is:
1) 100 Joules
2) 5000 Joules
3) 10,000 Joules
4) 50,000 Joules
ANSWER: 4 -- 50,000 JOULES
Q-4: A 10 kilogram object falls from a cliff 100 meters high. At the midpoint of its fall its total energy is:
1) 2450 Joules
2) 4900 Joules
3) 10,000 Joules
4) 20,000 Joules
ANSWER: 3 -- 10,000 JOULES
Q-5:  How much time is needed for a force of 20 Newtons to change the velocity of a 5 kilogram mass by 4 meters per second?
ANSWER: 1 SECOND
Q-6:  During an INELASTIC collision, the colliding bodies
1) lose kinetic energy
2) keep the same amount of kinetic energy
3) gains kinetic energy
4) first lose, then gain kinetic energy
ANSWER: 1 -- LOSE KINETIC ENERGY
Q-7:  A satellite travels at a constant speed in a circular orbit. The acceleration of the satellite is
1) zero
2) toward the center of the orbit
3) away from the center of the orbit
4) at a tangent to the orbit
ANSWER: 2 -- TOWARD THE CENTER OF THE ORBIT
Q-8: An 8 kilogram mass resting on a frictionless horizontal surface is attached to a spring with a force constant of 50 Newtons per meter. If the velocity of the mass through the equilibrium position is 5 meters per second, what is the mass's maximum displacement from equilibrium?
ANSWER: 2 METERS
Q-9:  The TOTAL energy of a vertically vibrating block attached to a spring is the same:
1) only at those points above the equilibrium position
2) only at the equilibrium position
3) only at those points below the equilibrium position
4) at all points in its motion
ANSWER: 4 -- AT ALL POINTS IN ITS MOTION

Two infinitely long, parallel wires carry currents which are in opposite directions. The two wires REPEL EACH OTHER


Q-1: Two infinitely long, parallel wires carry currents which are in opposite directions. The two wires:
1) are attracted toward each other
2) repel each other
3) have no effect on each other.
ANSWER: 2 -- REPEL EACH OTHER
Q-2:  Which one of the following laws best describes the operation of an electric generator?
1) Ampere's Law
2) Gauss' Law
3) Ohm's Law for Conductors
4) Faraday's Law of Induction
ANSWER: 4 -- FARADAY'S LAW OF INDUCTION
Q-3: Capacitors and inductors are commonly used in circuits. Capacitorsstore electrical energy in the electric field between their plates. How do inductors store energy?
ANSWER: IN A MAGNETIC FIELD SURROUNDING THE INDUCTOR
Q-4:  A wave and its reflection produce a standing wave with the distance from NODE to nearest ANTINODE of 4 meters. The wavelength of this wave is:
1) 4 meters
2) 8 meters
3) 12 meters
4) 16 meters
ANSWER: 4 -- 16 METERS
Q-5: The wave nature of electrons was EXPERIMENTALLY verified by:
1) Einstein
2) Davisson and Germer
3) Balmer
4) Bohr.
ANSWER: 3 -- DAVISSON AND GERMER
Q-6: Multiple Choice: Diffraction and interference demonstrate which of the following?
1) particle nature of light
2) wave nature of light
3) polarization of light
4) refraction of light
ANSWER: 2 -- WAVE NATURE OF LIGHT
Q-7:  An electromagnetic wave is ALWAYS:
1) longitudinal
2) polarized
3) spherical
4) transverse.
ANSWER: 4 -- TRANSVERSE
Q-8: The crack of a bullwhip results from the bullwhip's tip:
1) approaching the speed of sound
2) exceeding the speed of sound
3) moving with constant velocity
4) none of the above
ANSWER: 2 -- EXCEEDING THE SPEED OF SOUND
Q-9:  This planet's orbit gave proof of the superiority of Einstein's theory of gravity over Newton's:
1) Mercury
2) Earth
3) Mars
4) Pluto
ANSWER: 1 -- MERCURY
Q-10:  The Weber and the Maxwell are units of measure of:
1) conductance
2) electrical current
3) magnetic flux
4) relative speed
ANSWER: 3 -- MAGNETIC FLUX

A pitcher throws a baseball to his first-base man. As the ball flies through the air, assuming no air resistance, what is the shape of its trajectory?


Q-1: A pitcher throws a baseball to his first-base man. As the ball flies through the air, assuming no air resistance, what is the shape of its trajectory?
ANSWER: PARABOLA
Q-2:  Name the English physicist who discovered electromagnetic induction?
ANSWER: (MICHAEL) FARADAY
Q-3: What famous Scottish physicist died in the same year that Albert Einstein was born?
ANSWER: JAMES CLERK MAXWELL
Q-4: Who received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1929 for his postulation of the wave nature of electrons?
ANSWER: (PRINCE LOUIS-VICTOR) De BROGLIE
Q-5: Name the three American physicists who received the Nobel Prize in 1972 for their development of a theory of superconductivity.
ANSWER: (JOHN) BARDEEN, (LEON N.) COOPER, (J. ROBERT) SCHRIEFFER
Q-6:  Who first explained the billiard-ball-like collisions photons make with the free electrons in a scattering material? He received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1927 for this work.
ANSWER: ARTHUR HOLLY COMPTON
Q-7:  An electron is directly west of a proton. The force on the electron is in what direction: north, south, east, or west?
ANSWER: EAST or TOWARD THE PROTON
Q-8: At a point halfway between two identical point charges, the electric field is equal to:
1) zero
2) half its maximum value
3) its maximum value
4) pointing away from the two charges
ANSWER: 1 -- ZERO
Q-9:  Ten coulombs of positive charge are placed on an irregularly-shaped, solid piece of copper. Once the charge has stopped moving, the electric field inside the copper is:
1) zero
2) changes as one over the radius squared
3) becomes smaller as you approach the center
4) becomes larger as you approach the center
ANSWER: 1 -- ZERO
Q-10:  Ten coulombs of charge are placed on a solid copper sphere. Once the charge has come to rest, the ELECTRIC POTENTIAL inside the sphere is found to be:
1) zero
2) uniform inside the sphere and equal to the electric potential on the surface of the
sphere
3) smaller than the electric potential outside the sphere
4) varying as one over r squared
ANSWER: X -- UNIFORM INSIDE THE SPHERE AND EQUAL TO THE
ELECTRIC POTENTIAL ON THE SURFACE OF THE SPHERE
Q-11: A current of 5 amps passes through a 10 ohm resistor. How many joules of energy will be generated by this resistor in 2 seconds?
ANSWER: 500 JOULES
Q-12:  A charged particle is moving in a UNIFORM magnetic field. If the direction of motion of the charged particle is at right angles to the magnetic field, describe the shape of the charged particle's path.
ANSWER: CIRCULAR or CIRCLE

Newton's second law states that the net force acting on a body is equal to the body's time rate of change of MOMENTUM


Q-1: Newton's second law states that the net force acting on a body is equal to the body's time rate of change of:
1) acceleration
2) mass
3) momentum
4) inertia
ANSWER: 3 -- MOMENTUM
Q-2: A girl throws a ball vertically upward, what is the MOMENTUM of the ball at its highest point?
ANSWER: ZERO
Q-3:  A girl throws a 2 kilogram rock vertically upward. It reaches a maximum height of 5 meters. What is the kinetic energy of the rock the instant it leaves the girl's hand?
ANSWER: 100 JOULES (accept 98 joules)
Q-4:  A spring with a force constant of 20 newtons per meter is known to obey Hooke's Law. The spring is attached to a mass of 5 kilograms and placed on a horizontal, frictionless surface. The mass is displaced 3 meters from its equilibrium position and released.What is the kinetic energy of the mass as it passes through its equilibrium position?
ANSWER: 90 JOULES
Q-5: The period of oscillation of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion is:
1) independent of the amplitude of the motion
2) directly proportional to the frequency of oscillation
3) independent of the frequency of oscillation
4) none of the above
ANSWER: 1 -- INDEPENDENT OF THE AMPLITUDE OF THE MOTION
Q-6: The angle between the velocity and acceleration of a body is:
1) never 90 degrees
2) never 180 degrees
3) sometimes 180 degrees
4) never 0 degrees
ANSWER: 3 -- SOMETIMES 180 DEGREES
Q-7:  In a collision, which of the following four quantities is always conserved?
1) momentum
2) kinetic energy
3) torque
4) moment of inertia
ANSWER: 1 -- MOMENTUM
Q-8: Of the following terms, which is the product of force and time? Is it:
1) impulse
2) power
3) energy
4) work
ANSWER: 1 -- IMPULSE
Q-9:  In physics, a radian per second squared is a unit of:
1) angular displacement
2) angular velocity
3) angular acceleration
4) angular momentum.
ANSWER: 3 -- ANGULAR ACCELERATION
Q-10:  At what centigrade temperature will 1 mole of a gas under 1 atmosphere of pressure occupy 22.4 liters?
ANSWER: ZERO DEGREES CENTIGRADE